SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

Senior Secondary School Questions 2nd term SSS 3. Year 12/SS3 Examination Questions for second term with answers Obj – Edudelight Exam

Agricultural Science SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Which of the following is not an agricultural marketing agent in Nigeria? (a) Consumers (b) co-operative society (c) Producer (d) consumers
Establishing a specified characteristics that your product must conorm to is ____ (a) sorting (b) pricing (c) standardization (d) promotion
____ buys produce from farmers in raw state and coverts them to usable or consumable forms (a) Middle men (b) Marketing board (c) Processors (d) Wholesalers
The disadvantage of buy produce directly from farmers is (a) the produce are usually at the freshest state (b) produce price is at the cheapest (c) produce are purchased at inflated prices if there is scarcity (d) none of the above
____ enables a marketer generate adequate information about targeted market (a) Research (b) Sorting (c) Standardization (d) Promotion
___ is the mechanism by which insurer provides financial compensation to the insured in an attempt to place the insured back to the position he was before the loss A. Premium B. Loan C. Indemnity D. Subsidy
All these are forms of agricultural insurance policy except A. Crop insurance B. Livestock insurance C. Marine insurance D. Motor vehicle insurance
___ deals with the insurance of human life either in death, retirement or disability. A. Crop insurance B. Specific enterprise insurance C. Livestock insurance D. Life assurance
___ is the consideration given by the insured in return for the insurer’s undertaking to indemnify the insured in the manner agreed on the happening of a specified occurrence. A. Premium B. Loan C. Indemnity D. Subsidy
Agricultural risk includes the following except A. Personal risk B. Yield risk C. Price risk D. Premium risk
An effective way of ensuring built in resistance to disease in calves is to a) vaccinate calves at weaning (b) allow calves access to colostrums (c) ensure regular veterinary check-up (d) observe proper quarantine (e) give balanced diet
Disease causing organisms are referred to as___ (a). vectors (b). pathogens (c). pests (d). insect
Animal diseases are generally caused by the following except (a). protozoa (b) nematode (c) virus (d) fungi
An animal is said to be resistant to a disease if the a. animal easily succumb to infection by the disease. b. presence of the disease pathogen does not cause expression of disease symptoms. c. animal is able to endure the effect of the disease. d. animal has no antibodies in its blood.
The factors that can predispose animals to diseases include the following except_ (a) poor housing (b) immunity (c) malnutrition (d) unfavourable weather
The best control measure for rinderpest disease in cattle is a. sanitation b. isolation
c. eradication of infected stock d. vaccination
The part of the body affected by Newcastle disease of poultry are the_ A. nervous system and respiratory tract B. digestive and circulatory system C. reproductive and excretory tracts D. air sac and the comb
The general symptoms of malnutrition in animals include the following except__(a). retarded growth (b). increase in body size (c) low production (d) susceptibility to disease
Newcastle disease affects the following animals except (a). goat (b). chicken (c). turkey (d). duck
Which of the following is not a viral disease? (a). Anthrax (b). Fowl pox (c). Gumburo (d). Rinderpest
Which of the following livestock diseases is transmitted by tick? (a) Coccidiosis (b) aspergillosis (c) brucellosis (d) red water fever
Which of the following diseases is not caused by protozoa (a) trypanosomiasis (b) Coccidiosis (c) red water fever (d) aspergillosis
When a cattle is observed to be sleeping constantly among the flock, it’s most likely suffering from (a) trypanosomiasis (b) coccidiosis (c) red water fever (d) aspergillosis
The disease that causes abortion in cattle at the later stage of pregnancy is (a) milk fever (b) pneumonia (c) brucellosis (d) foot and mouth
Trypanosomiasis can affect the following animals except (a) fowl (b) cattle (c) sheep (d) goat
The following are endoparasites of livestocks except__ A. insect bug B. roundworm C. liverfluke D. tapeworm
The primary host of tapeworm is__(a) man (b). sheep (c). goat (d). pig
The following are economic importance of tapeworm except (a) causing reduced growth (b). causing indigestion ( c) causing death (d). causing increased weight in animals
Which of the following is not a method of preventing diseases? A. quarantine B. vaccination C. hygiene D. eating too much

SSS 3 Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.B

6.C 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.A

11.A 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.B

16.C 17.B 18.C 19.C 20.A

21.D 22.D 23.C 24.B 25.B

26.C 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.A

THEORY

1a. State two advantages each of the following agricultural marketing agents.

commodity boards (ii) co-operative society (iii) middlemen (iv) Retailer (v) producer.

1b. Explain the term marketing channel.

2a. Outline and discuss channels of marketing cocoa.

2b. List five ways by which marketing can be encouraged

3a. Define agricultural insurance.

3b. State three importance of agricultural insurance

3c. Briefly explain five agricultural risks

4a. What is livestock disease?

4b. Briefly explain four factors that could predispose animals to diseases.

4c. List ten common symptoms of animal disease

5a. a. Name the causative agent of Newcastle disease. b. What are the symptoms? c. How can it be controlled?

5b. Name 5 viral diseases.

5c. State the symptoms of fowl pox.

6a. State the mode of transmission of fowl pox

6b. List two animals that are affected by rinderpest

6c.What are endoparasites?

6d. Discuss the life cycle of tapeworm.

Biology SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

BIOLOGY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The basic hereditary unit is the —– (a) cell (b) nerve (c) gene (d) nucleus
In man there are —— autosomes and ——- sex chromosomes (a) 46:2 (b) 44:2 (c) 44:1 (d) 45:1
The manipulation of DNA molecules for the benefit of humanity is known as (a) Genetic b) Biotechnology c) Hereditary d) Bioremediation
A condition in which bleeding take an abnormally long time to stop or fail to stop in a person is known as (a) anaemia b) sickle cell c) hemophilia d) albinism
What is the probability that a male and a female that are carriers of albino gene will have albino offspring (a) ¼ b) ½ c) ¾ d) 1
Chromosomes occur in pairs known as homologous chromosomes (a) true (b) false
Each chromosome is made up of two threads called ___ joined at a point called ____ (a) centromere, chromatids (b) chromatids , centromere (c) cells, blood
he number of chromosomes in each somatic cell of an organism is called___(a) diploid number (2n) (b) diploid number (1n) (c) diploid number (3n)
Each chromosome is made up of protein units in a strand of__(a) RNA (b) WHC (c) DNA
There are__autosomes which are similar in shape and size in both male and female (a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 47 (d) 48
A colour blind person cannot distinguish __colours (a) far (b) behind (c) near
Mendel’s works were based on__(a) genetics (b) hereditary (c) probability
_____ is a group of organisms of the same specie living in a specified area within a given period of time (a) environment (b) population (c) ecosystem
____ refers to the differences which exist between individuals of the same species (a) variation (c) vulnerability (c) pathogens
____variation is the noticeable physical appearance of individuals of the same species (a) physiological (b) morphological (c) population
A sudden change in a gene is called ___which can be inherited when sex linked (a) genetics (b) mutation (c) hereditary
A gene responsible for green fruits in plants may be altered to produce a yellow fruit in the same plant (a) True (b) False (c) IDK
The differences which exists between individual of the same species is known as A. hereditary B. mutation C. variation D. population
Which of these is not a continuous variation A. height B. skin colour C. intelligence D. ability to roll tongue
The differences in the way individual behaves or reacts to changes in the environment is termed ————- variation A. morphological B. physiological C. continuous D. discontinuous
The following are group of human finger print except A. loop B. simple C. compound D. arch
Variation factor used in determination of paternity is A. fingerprint B. skin colour C. blood group D. behavior
The sum total of adaptive changes from pre-existing forms that has taken place over a long time to form diverse organisms is called____(a) organic evolution (b) evolution (c) gene
The environment plays most active roles in the following theories except__ A. theory of use & disuse B. theory of natural selection C. modern theory of evolution D. Jean Lamarck’s theory
A sudden change in DNA structure leading to a change in the phenotype of a species is known as A. adaptation B. mutation C. evolution D. competition
Which of these is not a vestigial organ in animals A. rudiment tail in man B. appendix C. clitoris in woman D. wings in birds
Jean Lamarck’s theory of use and disuse was not accepted because A. only characters on genes are inheritable not physical ones B. it fails to recognize the importance of environment C. individual have to struggle for existence D. it recognizes the importance of environment
The following except one are behavioural adaptation mode to avoid harsh weather condition A. aestivation B. swaying C. hibernation D. migration
Concealing colouration exhibited by some organisms to remain unnoticed is referred to as A. mimicry B. hibernation C. camouflage D. wagging
The following except one are social animals A. fowl B. honey bee C. ants D. wolves

THEORY

– Answer only 3

1a. State the rules of drawing biological diagram

1b. State Differentiate between aestivation & hibernation

2a. Mention two economic importance of honey bees

2b. Give five types of adaptive colouration in animals.

3a. Differentiate between Jean Lamarck’s and Darwin’s theories of evolution

3b. Outline five application of variation

4a. What’s are the major causes of variation?

4b. Give three examples each of continuous and discontinuous variations

5a. What is variation?

5b.Differentiate between morphological and physiological variations

SSS 1 Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A

6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.A

11C 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.B

16.B 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.B

21.B 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.B

26.C 27.A 28.C 29.C 30.A

SS3 Chemistry Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

CHEMISTRY

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

____ Chemistry is an aspect of chemistry that deal with nuclei of atoms (a) nuclear (b) radioactivity (c) atoms (d) ion
____ is the spontaneous emission of radiation by radioactive element such as Thorium, Uranium etc. (a) nuclear (b) radioactivity (c) atoms
Which of the following is not a type of radiation? (a) Beta (b) Alpha (c) Gamma (d) Nucleus
____ is an example of radiation (a) Aloha (b) Carbon (c) Uranium (d) Nucleus
Alpha particle was deflected towards negative plate while Beta deflected toward (a) Neutral plate (b) Negative plate (c) Zero plate (d) positive plate
The following caused fluorescence of matter except (a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Gamma (d) X- ray
The neutron-proton ration determines the stability of an element (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
Atoms with a neutron – protons less than 1 or greater than 1.5 tends to be stable (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
Examples of radioactive elements are except (a) Uranium (b) Polonium (c) Thorium (d) Oxygen
²³⁵₉₂U + ¹n → ¹⁴¹₅₆Ba + ⁹²₃₆Kr + 3 ¹₀n

The above nuclear reaction represents (a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion (c) oxidation reaction (d) esterification reaction

11. ²³⁸₉₂U —–> ²³⁴₉₀Th + A. In the equation, A represents (a) hydrogen (b) beryllium (c) helium (d) oxygen

12. Chain reaction helps during the preparation of ____ (a) Solar bomb (b) atomic bomb (c) hydrogen bomb (d) nuclear fusion

13. ²³₁₁Na + ₀¹n ²⁴₁₁Na The reaction represents (a) artificial radioactivity (b) Natural radioactivity (c) Nuclear fission (d) Binding energy

14. A lone pair of electron is found in (a) ammonia (b) methane (c) water (d) carbon(iv) oxide

15. Examples of covalent molecules with linear shapes are except (a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (c) water (d) hydrogen chloride

16. Example of a compound with double bonds is (a) water (b) carbon(iv) oxide (c) methane (d) ammonia

17. The following are types of crystalline solid except (a) covalent (b) ionic (c) metallic (d) methane

18. The unit cells based on the cubic structure are the following except (a) simple cubic (b) complex cubic (c) body-centred cubic (d)face-centred cubic

19. An example of intermolecular bonding is (a) Vander wall (b) metallic (c) ionic (d) covalent

20. Both metallic substance and electrovalent compound are similar because (a) Both dissolve readily in water. (b) they have a low melting point. (c) they can conduct electricity. (d) they have a low boiling point

21. The dotted line in an intermolecular bond stands for ____ (a) oxygen (b) hydrogen bond (c) ionic bond (d) covalent bond

22. Vander Wall force of attraction can be grouped as (a) Strongest force (b) hydrogen bond (c) weakest force (d) ionic bond

23. The metallic bond can easily be identified by the presence of (a) positive charge (b) negative charge (c) neutral charge (d) double bonds

24. Which of these is not an alkali? (a) Sodium hydroxide (b) Potassium hydroxide (c) Aqueous ammonia (d) None of the above

25. Which compound is added to fused NaCl to lower its melting point? (a)CaCO₃ (b) CaCl₂(c) Ca(OH)₂ (d) Ca(NO₃)₂

26. NaHCO₃ is also called? (a) Chalk (b) Baking powder (c) Lime (d) Slaked lime

27. What is the colour of sodium flame (a) white (b) red (c) black (d) green

28. Sodium reacts explosively with cold water to liberate (a) Hydrogen (b) CO₂ (c) O₂ (d) Na₂

29. Who has most oil in world? (a) Nigeria (b) Dubai (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Kuwait

30. C + water give colourless solution (a) c is a soluble salt (b) c is partially dissolve in water (c) c is a filtrate (d) c is a residue

SSS 3 Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.C

6.C 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.A

11.C 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.D

16.B 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.C

21.B 22.C 23.A 24.C 25.B

26.B 27.A 28.A 29.C 30.B

THEORY

– ANSWER ONLY 3

1a. Define the term nuclear chemistry

1b. Define the term radioactivity and the term radioisotopes

2a. Find the half-life of a radio isotope element which was found to be 120g initially and later changed to 15g in 24 hours

2b. State the three main type of radiation & their properties

3a. Explain principle of operation of a nuclear power plant

3b. State five (5) uses of radioactivity

4a. Define the following with an example each (a) Nuclear Fission (b) Nuclear Fusion

4b. State two differences of ( nuclear and chemical reaction)

5a. State three examples of crystalline solids with their shape

5b. Explain the following simple covalent molecules and draw their shape (a) methane (b) Water (c) carbon (iv) oxide

6a. State the type of chemical bond found in these substances= Magnesium , Sodium chloride, Ammonium chloride, Molecules of hydrogen fluoride,

6b. State four properties of the following chemical bonds:

Electrovalent bond ,covalent bond, dative bond, hydrogen bond, metallic bond

Civic Education SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL ( S.S.3)

CIVIC – EDUCATION ( MOCK EXAMINATION)

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A:

Instruction: Answer all question

The word democracy was traceable to ancient____(a) Latin (b) Word (c) Greek
____is the government of the people, by the people and for the people (a) democracy (b) government (c) politicians
The word____ and___ which form democracy means people and government. (a) demo, cratia (b) demo , kratia (c) 1 & 2
_____democracy is the system of government where everybody is involved in governing the country (a) direct (b) indirect (c) law
Which of the following is not characteristics of democracy? (a) party system (b) freedom of the press (c) military (d) rule of law
____ is the supremacy of the law over every citizen in the political system (a) legal principle (b) rule of law (c) democracy
The concept of the rule of law was made popular by professor___ in his book “enspirit de law” in the year 1885 (a) Abraham Lincoln (b) A.V Dicey (c) Adam smith
Rule of law implies that every citizen is subject to the law, including lawmakers themselves (a) False (b) True (c) Maybe
All of the following are the principle of the rule of law except principle of ____(a) impartiality (b) equality of the law (c) non-equality before law
The rule of law does not help citizen and non-citizen to enjoy their rights as it is claimed in the constitution (a) True (b) False
____ is the special right granted to certain individuals in position of authority which shield them from prosecution while in office regardless of the offence committed (a) Immunity (b) legislation (c) tribunal
____ are set up in some countries to try erring public officers. While ordinary citizens are tried in the ordinary courts (a) delegated legislation (b) administrative tribunal (c) special courts
___ democracy is the type of democracy where powers of the majority are exercised within a frame work of the constitution designed to guarantee the majority right (a) representative (b) republican (c) constitutional
____ type of democracy allows for proceedings on issues that concerns state alone. (a) representative (b) republican constitutional (c) constitutional
The____are the ultimate source of the authority of the government which derives its right to govern from their consent. (a) lawyers (b) people (c) foreigners (d) judges
___ is the rule that gives the majority the chance to express their views and opinions in the affair of the government (a) majority rule (b) rule of law (c) minority rule
Which one of the following is not advantages of constitutional democracy? (a) Periodic election (b) freedom of the press (c) separation of powers
Which one of the following is not disadvantages of constitutional democracy? (a) separation of powers (b) freedom of the press (c) corruption
The word supremacy of the constitution means (a) The constitution is a God (b) The constitution supersedes every other consideration (c) the constitution is not important (d) the constitution has nothing to do in a constitutional democracy
One advantage of constitutional democracy is (a) there is separation of powers (b) decision making is slow (c) there is the rule of law (d) there can be corruption
All of the following are advantages of constitutional democracy except (a) there is rule of law (b) there is separation of powers (c) it encourages constitutionalism (d) there is choice of political leadership
All the following are key concept of the constitutional democracy except (a) history of the people (b) the rule of law (c) all of the above (d) freedom of the press
One of the major demerit of constitutional democracy is ( a) the rule of law (b) decision making is slow (c) choice of political party (d) legitimacy
___ trafficking can be defined as the act of recruiting, transporting, or receiving a person through force, coercion or through other means for the purpose of exploiting them (a) drug (b) human (c) food
Human trafficking is the trade in humans, most commonly for the purpose of___(a) traffickers (b) sexual slavery (b) good labour
___ is a situation where a person fall short of a level of economic welfare, where a person lacks the basic human want which are clothing, food and shelter (a) employment (b) job (c) poverty
The causes of human trafficking is ____(a) wealth (b) illiterates (b) health (d) politics
A person who violated the fundamental human rights is called ____ (a) victims (b) traffickers (d) druglers
Those who are treated as criminals by officials in countries of transit and destination are called illegal _____(a) aliens (b) citizens (b) locals
Which one is not consequences of human trafficking (a) stigmatize (b) freedom (c) unwanted pregnancy

THEORY – ANSWER ALL

1a. What is human trafficking and what causes it?

1b. What are the consequences of human trafficking?

1c. What are the efforts that needs to be taken to curb human trafficking?

2a. Define constitutional democracy

2b.What are the types of constitutional democracy?

2c.What is Democracy?

2d. List types of democracy?

3a. Define Rule of Law

3b. List 3 solutions to the problems of Rule of law

3c. List the importance of Rule of Law

SSS 3 Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.C

6.B 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.B

11.A 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.B

16.A 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.C

21.B 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.B

26.C 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.B

Commerce SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

S.S.S THREE ( SENIOR CLASS 3)

COMMERCE

2ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A:

Instruction: Answer all questions

Commerce can be defined as the _________(a) Exchange of goods and services (b) Distribution and exchange of goods and services (c) Distribution of services at home (d) Export of services
Which of the following is NOT a function of commerce? (a) Facilitate mass production of goods (b) Assists in raising capital (c) Creates goods and services (d) Offers employment
Production is defined as ____________________ (a) An industrial activity (b) Creation of utilities (c) The exchange of goods and services (d) Changing of raw materials into finished goods
Babou Peen, a fisherman says he has all necessary materials to go to sea today, except the captain of his boat. Captain here as a factor of production, refers to ______(a) Entrepreneur (b) Capital (c) Labour (d) Land
Farmers and all other workers concerned with getting raw materials from the earth are engaged in _________(a) Commercial occupation (b) Manufacturing occupation (c) Constructive occupation (d) Extractive occupation
The process of making goods attractive and east to handle in merchandising is called __________(a) Branding (b) Merchandising (c) Packaging (d) Labeling
The charges impose by the government on locally manufactured goods is called______(a) custom duties (b) excise duties (c) tariffs (d) quota
A grocer invoiced a carton of fish valued at N2,500 for N2000 only. To correct the error, which of the following documents would be sent to the buyer? (a) credit note for N500 (b) Debit note for N500 (c) credit note for N2,500 (d) debit note for N2,500
The exchange of goods and services among many countries is _____ trade (a) multilateral (b) bilateral (c) counter (d) entreport
If a ship overstays its stipulated time at a port, it pays a charge known as _____(a) arbitrage (b) demurrage (c) dock due (d) toll
A transaction where the buyer of a commodity becomes its legal owner after the payment of the last installment is _____(a) a credit sale (b) factoring (c) hire purchase (d) leasing
An agreement whereby the seller transfer or agrees to transfer the property in goods for a monetary consideration is a ______(a) contract of (a) Sale (b) hire purchase (c) conditional sale (d) party selling
The main purpose of sending delivery notes along with goods is to____(a) enable the gods to be checked on arrival (b) enable the buyer to pay the correct delivery charges (c) ensure the safe delivery of the goods (d) prevent the goods from being stolen in transit.
A shop that sells only the products of a particular manufacturer is known as _____________(a) mobile (b) unit shop (c) tied shop (d) small shop
Which of the following statement cannot be found in a partnership deed? (a) names of partners (b) nature of business (c) payment of tax (d) interest on capital
Product differentiation is achieved by ______(a) packaging and branding (b) packing and grading (c) market segmentation (d) outdoor advertising
Which of the following services is not offered to retailers by wholesalers? (a) keeping them informed of the demands of consumer (b) keeping them informed of new products (c) offering a wide range of products (d) granting credit
The buying and selling of goods and services within a country is called _____(a) counter trade (b) entreport trade (c) foreign trade (d) home trade
The relationship between partners is stipulated in the (a) memorandum of association (b) article of association (c) certificate of incorporation (d) partnership deed
Which of the following cannot be used to regulate importation? (a) import quota (b) import licence (c) imposition of embargo (d) increase of excise duty
A firm that accepts, sells and delivers goods by post is a (a) supermarket (b) multiple store (c) department store (d) mail order business
Okon & Co. law chamber is an example of a ___(a) sole proprietorship (b) partnership (c) co-operative society (d) public limited company
A refund of the duty collected on goods imported into a country which are later re-exported is _____(a) excise duty (b) ad valorem tax (c) customs drawback (d) demurrage
Which of the following is mostly used by a mail order business to sell goods? (a) posters (b) catalogues (c) journals (d) magazines
Information requested from a bank concerning the credit worthiness of a new customer to a business is ___________(a) private enquiry (b) status enquiry (c) general enquiry (d) letter of enquiry
The document which gives legal authority to a company to operate as a legal entity is _____(a) memorandum of association (b) article of association (c) share certificate (d) certificate of incorporation
A business that is independent of its owners is a ______(a) sole proprietorship (b) partnership (c) limited liability company (d) co-operative society
The amount paid regularly by the assured to the insurer is (a) dividend (b) premium (c) interest (d) indemnity
Net profit is calculated as _____(a) sales less purchases (b) sales less expenses (c) gross profit less expenses (d) gross profit less purchases
Which of the following carries specialized goods? (a) liner (b) tramp (c) ferry (d) tanker
In sea transport, vessels that operate on fixed routes and schedules are called______(a) ferries (b) yachts (c) liners (d) tramps
Which of the following advertising media combines the disadvantage of both sight and sound? (a) television (b) radio (c) Neon sign (d) billboard
One disadvantage of advertising to the consumer is that it (a) brings confusion on the choice of goods (b) increase demand (c) persuades the public to buy what they need (d) decreases the cost of goods
Which of the following is not a sales promotion method? (a) demonstration (b) exhibition (c) free sample (d) newspaper
Working capital is __________(a) current assets less total liabilities (b) total assets less total liabilities (c) current liabilities plus current assets (d) current assets less current liabilities
A cheque dated 30^th July,2004 but presented for payment on 28^th February,2005 is ____________ (a) post-dated (b) crossed (c) opened (d) stale

Use the following to answer questions 37 – 39

This extract is Eniola Computer Services, Aba.

Sales 200,000.00

Stock 1/1/2004 25,000.00

Stock 31/12/2004 15,000.00

Purchases 145,000.00

Returns inwards 20,000.00

Sales and Distribution 13,000.00

Wages and Salaries 8,000.00

37. The average stock is ____ (a)N60,000 (b) N35,000 (c) 30,000 (d) 25,000

38. The gross profit is _____(a) N65,000 (b)N55,000 (c) N30,000 (d) N20,000

39. The cost of goods sold is_____(a) N135,000 (b) N115,00 (c) N60,000 (d) N35,000

40. Which of the following receives dividend based on patronage?

41. If a customer opens a deposit account with a bank, he will (a) receive a crossed cheque book (b) be given a tally (c) be given a loan (d) receive interest

42. A chamber of commerce normally consist of ____(a) officials of the trade unions of commercial workers (b) all the people engaged in one aspect of trading and manufacturing

43. A group of musicians can come together for form a (a) chamber of commerce (b) public corporation (c) trade association (d) trade union

44. Which of the following is not an advantage of marketing? (a) creation of demand (b) ensuring effective distribution of goods (c) implementing government regulations (d) application of marketing techniques

45. One disadvantages of indigenization is that it (a) discourages foreign control of an economy (b) encourages local retention of profits (c) encourages the participation of indigenes in economic development (d) discourages foreign investment

46. The takeover by government of Sanking Sillah and Sons Ltd is referred to as (a) privatization (b) indigenization (c) commercialization (d) nationalization

47. Which of the following economic unions is made up of countries in West Africa only? (a) ACP (b) ECOWAS (c) NATO (d) ADB

48. People who sell shares in anticipation of a fall in their value are called____(a) bears (b) bulls (c) brokers (d) jobbers

49. Which of the following is not a favorable condition under which personal selling can be practiced? (a) when advertising entails relatively high costs (b) when the market is concentrated (c) when the market is dispersed (d) when personal touch is needed.

50. A shareholder who holds 100,000 shares of 50 butts each is given a dividend of 10 percent less 2 percent tax. What is his net return? (a) D10,000 (b) D9,800 (c) D5,000 (d) D4,900

SSS 3 Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1. C 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.C

10.D 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.B 16.C 17.A

18.C 19.B 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.C

26.A 27.C 28.D 29.A 30.B 31.C 32.A 33.B

34.C 35.C 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.B 40.D 41.A

42.C 43.E 44.C 45.E 46.C 47.B 48.B 49.B

50.B

THEORY

1a. Define Market.

1b. Explain four (4) functions of marketing

1c. Explain three (3) types of market

2a. Define the word ‘Payment in commerce’

2b. Explain these (i) Legal tender (ii) Cheque (iii) standing order (iv) bank draft (v) credit transfer

3a. Differentiatie between commericalisation and privatization

3b.i. What is deregulation?

3b.ii. Mention five (5) advantages and two (2) disadvantages of deregulation

Senior Secondary School Questions 2nd term SSS 3. Year 12/SS3 Examination Questions for second term with answers Obj – Edudelight Exam

CRS SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The man who succeeded Judas as an apostle was (a) Peter (b) Barnabas (c)Philip (d)Matthias
The first problem that crept into the early church was (a)the dishonesty and death of Ananias and Sapphira (b)the problem of favouritism (c) The problem of food (d) The problem of leadership
The seven deacons of the early church had the primary role of (a)baptizing (b) preaching (c)healing (d) daily distribution
The couple who died for lying to the Holy Spirit was (a) Joseph and Mary (b)Ahab and Jezebel (c)Ananias and Sapphira (d) Elkanah and Peninnnah
The man noted for his generosity in the early church was____. (a) Simon (b) Peter (c) Barnabas (d) Stephen.
After Jesus Christ’s ascension, the apostles and the disciples were about _______of them were together. (a) 130 (b) 120 (c) 124 (d) 70
_____addressed them on the need to find a replacement for Judas Iscariot who had committed suicide following his betrayal of Jesus Christ. (a) Peter (b) Paul (c) Matthew (d) John
_____ is the Significance of Easter celebration (a) The Birth of Jesus (b) Sabbath day (c) The resurrection of Jesus Christ (d) Gospel
Barnabas and Matthias. After they prayed they cast lots for them; the lot fell on____(a) Barnabas (b) Stephen (c) Paul (d) Matthias
After Peter’s speech on the Pentecost day, about____ thousand men were converted to Christianity. (a) three (b) four (c) two (d) five
All of the following are the relationship of the people in the early church except ___(a) eating together (b) partying together (c) living together (d) one love
All of the following are problems facing the churches today except ____ (a) stealing of church funds (b) the issue of women ordination (c) preaching or teaching about Jesus (d) fights of position (e) differences in doctrines
The Holy Spirit descended upon the apostles in form of_____. A. flame B. star C. fire D. lightning
Jesus Christ appeared to his disciples for ___days after his resurrection. A.20 B.30 C.40 D. 50
There were __________disciples praying and waiting in the upper room before the coming of the Holy Spirit. A.600 B.300 C. 120 D.200
Jesus told his disciples to tarry in___ for the promise of the Father. A. Shiloh B. Jerusalem C. Bethel D. Galilee
After the sermon of Peter on the day of Pentecost about_____________ people were converted and added to the church. A. 5000 B. 3000 C. 300 D. 400
_____ refers to the manner in which Jesus was taken to heaven. (a) resurrection (b) ascension (c) descending (d) ascending
The word Pentecost is derived from the Greek word for ____(a) fifty (b) thirty (c) twenty (d) hundred
The Apostles (120 people) prayed fervently for____days and waited patiently for the Holy Spirit. (a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 8
Paul’s Jewish name was [a] Caesar [b] Saul [c] John Paul.
The conversion of Paul resulted to the peace in__ [a] Tarsus [b] Jerusalem [c] Egypt.
___ was the occupation of Paul for his sustenance. A. Tailoring B. Carpentry C. Civil-servant D. Tent-making”
After Paul escape death in Damascus, he went to [a] Jerusalem [b] Samaria [c] Gentiles [d] Tarsus.
The Christian brother that opened the eyes of Saul was___. A. Ananias B. Annals C. Joel D. Peter
The conversion of Paul was on his way to ____(a) Damascus (b) Turkey (c) Jerusalem (d) Rome
He was Paul was telling the people of Jews that Jesus was the son of God and this was ____(a) along with their belief (b) against their belief (c) in-line with their belief
One of the following did not happen while Peter was preaching to Cornelius and his household. A. He perceived that God shows no partiality, but in every nation, anyone who fears Him is acceptable to Him B. The Holy Spirit fell on them C. They started healing the sick D. the household of Cornelius gathered.
Peter was told not to call unclean what God had cleansed implied that___. A. He should exercise no scruples to heed the divine instruction B. He should exercise some scruples to heed to the divine instruction C. He should obey Mosaic law as a Jew D. He should not enter a Gentile house.
The healing of the cripple at the beautiful gate led to the imprisonment of___. A. Paul and Silas B. Paul and Barnabas C. Peter and John D. James and John

SSS 3 CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.A 3.D 4.C 5.B

6.B 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.A

11.B 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.C

16.B 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.B

21.B 22.B 23.D 24.D 25.A

26.A 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.C

SECTION B- THEORY

– Answer 6 out 10 ( 5×4=20)

What social problems brought about the appointment of deacons in the early church.
Mention five social problems facing the church today.
Mention five challenges of present day church.
What are the solutions to these challenges?
Narrate the story of the coming of the Holy Spirit.
What is the significance of Pentecost to Christians today?
What was the reaction of the Jew to Paul’s conversion?
What was the role of Barnabas to Paul’s conversion?
What is conversion?
State two ways to show the genuineness of Paul’s salvation.
Describe the persecution of the Church by the Sanhedrin.
Narrate the persecution of the Church by Herod Agrippa.

Data Processing SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

DATA PROCESSING

SECTION A – OBJECTIVES

The process by which a database is moved back to a consistent and usable state is called___(a) cash recovery (b) crash recovery (c) past recovery (d) undo recovery
The recovery algorithm that uses no-force and steal approach is____(a) ARIAS (b) ARIES (c) ARREARS (d) ARIS
ARIES works in_____Phases (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
Which of these is not a crash recovery type___ (a) ARIES (b) Media recovery (c) Check pointing (d) UNDO
____ Crash recovery uses backup files (a) Check point (b) ARIES (c) Media recovery
(d) atomicity
_____ system seeks to improve performance through parallelization of various operations. (a) parallel database (b) distributed database (c) relational database (d) flat database
The architecture where multiple processors are attached to an interconnected network and access a common region of memory is called ………. (a) shared memory (b) shared disk system (c) share nothing(d) all of the above
In___partitioning, tuples are sorted and ranges are chosen for the sort key values.(a) round robin (b) hash (c) range (d) table
___ Partitioning is suitable for efficiently evaluating queries that access the entire relation. (a) range (b) round robin (c) hash (d) query
The following are examples of parallel database except. (a) implementation is highly expensive (b) speed (c) reliability (d) capacity
A distributed database system is a system that permits ………. data storage across several sites. (a) physical (b) logical (c) vertical (d) horizontal
Network traffic blocking is one of the problems related to the ………. model.. (a) parallel database (b) distributed database (c) client server (d) network
This is a process of splitting a relation into smaller relation or fragments. (a) Replication (b) shared memory (c) fragmentation (d) implementation
One of the following is architecture of distributed database system. (a) table (b) fragment (c) replication (d) client server
____are language that computers used to talk to each other over a network (a) Media (b) user (c) Protocol (d) server
An example of the bus system is the____(a) Ethernet (b) intranet (c) ring (d) star
___is the term used to describe the physical arrangement of computer in networks. (a) Internet (b) Topology (c) Ethernet (d) hub
The network configuration in which the terminals are connected in the same fashion as the branches of a tree is called____(a) Flat (b) relational (c) Hierarchical (d) network
One of the following is a communication medium. (a) coaxial cable (b) book (c) typewriter (c) windows (d) episode
This is a term used to refer to the process of accessing and viewing web pages on the internet is called___(a)Browse (b) internet (c) webpages
___ is a private network within an organization that resembles the internet. (a) internet (b) Intranet (c) WAN (d) server
The internet provides users with facilities for online___ of examinations like WAEC, NECO and JAMB (a) E-learning (b) E-registration (c) commerce (d) banking
___ is a software program written with malicious intentions. (a) Computer virus (b) infection (c) e-scan (d) Anti-virus
_____ deletes the information contained in the files. (a) Fat virus (b) micro virus (c) Overwrite virus (d) Polymorphic virus
_____utilizes viruses or Trojans to gain access to your computer, to steal data, invade privacy or use computer for their evil purposes. (a) Hackers (b) files (c) human (d) detector
A virus that can track internet searching habits and possibly redirect web site activity is called__ (a) logic bomb (b) fat virus (c) spyware (d) worm
____ are those who assemble, install, repair and operate the computer system. (a) Computer personnel (b) Mechanic (c) Doctor (d) Lawyer
A good computer professional must possess____ writing skill. (a) logical (b) technical (c) physical (d) little
A____is the one that writes a set of instructions to be executed by the computer. (a) software programmer (b) data analyst (c) computer operator (d) data entry clerk
The_____a professional that install, manage and maintaining of ICT cabling/ transport network and architecture. (a) computer educator (b) enterprise system administrator (c) database administrator (d) programmer

SSS 3 Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.B 3.A 4.A 5.A

6.A 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.A

11.A 12.C 13.C 14.D 15.C

16.A 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.A

21.B 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.A

26.C 27.A 28.B 29.A 30.B

THEORY

– ANSWER ONLY 3

1a. Discuss the concept of ARIES in crash recovery

1b. Explain difference between media recovery and check point.

1c. Explain difference between a system crash and a media failure.

2a. Define parallel database.

2b. Enumerate the three architectures for database.

2c State three methods data can be partitioned.

2d. What are the merits and demerits of parallel database

3a. What is Network topology?

3b. List and explain the three types of network topology

4a. Define Networking 4b. State four benefits of Networking.

4c. Differentiate between intranet and extranet

5a. Mention five examples of computer virus. 5b. State five sources of virus infect micro computer..

5c. State seven virus warning sign.

5d. State five ways of preventing computer virus.

SS3 Economics Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

ECONOMICS

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

A country is said to achieve economic growth when there is an increase in the volume of National output (National Income) arising from an expansion in production (a) True (b) False (c) IDK
When there is economic growth, it shows in the form of decrease in income level, an expansion in the labour force (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
Economic development means ___(a) economic crisis (b) economic policy (c) economic growth
Which of the following is not characteristics of economic development (a) increase in capital (b) reduction in unemployment (c) problem of welfare
A country is said to be underdeveloped when she lacks the human and material resources needed to improve the welfare of her citizens. (a) true (b) false
Most West African countries and part of Asia are considered to be___ (a) underdeveloped (b) overdeveloped (c) non-developed
Which of the following is not causes of underdeveloped? (a) low technology (b) poor capital (c) wealth
All of the following are solutions to underdeveloped except___(a) capital formation (b) poor planning (b) capacity building
Economic growth is the ____A. rate of increase in a country’s full employment and real output. B. rate of increase in a nations total population rate. C. increase in inflation. D. growth in birthrate.
An increase in the quantity of goods and services produced in a country which raises her national income is known as ____ A. economic development B. economic growth C. domestic investment D. productivity
Economic development is reflected in ____ A. Scarcity of capital B. increase in the price level C. decline in agricultural production D. increase in productive capacity
The level of Economic development is low in Nigeria because ____ A. planning has no practical relevance B. of the pattern of consumers spending C. the country is too large D. of ineffective plan implementation
_____ is an essential feature of any country (a) economic development (b) economic crisis (c) economic barrier
_____planning plan deals with how National Income is distributed to various sectors of the economy (a) strategic (b) financial (c) partial
____ is a plan designed to address a specific objective in the economy (a) strategic (b) financial (c) partial
____type of plan covers all major aspects of the national economy(a) strategic (b) financial (c) comprehensive
The plan in which government formulates and executes plans for the economy is also known as___(a) authoritarian planning (b) strategic planning (c) partial economic planning
Which of the following is not problem of planning (a) corruption (b) sufficient capital (c) lack of skill
The type of economic planning that deals with distribution of National Income to various sectors is known as _____ A. Financial planning B. sectorial planning C. strategic planning D. partial economic planning
The Economic Community of West African States was founded on___28th 1975 in Lagos, Nigeria (a) May (b) June (c) March
The ECOWAS comprised all the___ independent nations of West African (a) 17 (b) 16 (c) 18
Abuja and Lome serve as the administrative and fund headquarter for ECOWAS (a) Yes (b) No
ECOWAS, The body was formed under the leadership of General___(a) Aguiyi (b) Yakubu Gowon (c) Obasanjo (d) Buhari
All these Nigeria, Ghana, The Gambia’s Sierra Leone and Liberia are called___(a) Anglophone (b) Francophone (c) Busophone
One of the achievement of ECOWAS is ____(a) promote war (b) promote racism (c) promote peace
ECA was founded in _____ A. 1962 B.1965 C.1958 D.1901
The UNCTAD has its headquarter in _____ A. Meiran Lagos B. Accra Ghana C. Lome Togo D. Geneva Switzerland
One of the following is a member of EU A. Ghana B. Argentina C. Togo D. France
The West African Clearing House was established in ____ A. Jan 1914 B. June 1975 C. May 2005 D. May 1902
WACH headquarter is in _____ A. Ikeja, Nigeria B. Cairo, Egypt C. Accra, Ghana D. Freetown, Sierra Leone

THEORY

– ANSWER ALL

1a. Outline five objectives of European Union.

1b. Mention four functions of Economic community for Africa.

1c. State five objectives of millennium development goals.

1d. State three objectives of NEEDS.

2a. Discuss the Millennium Development Goal

2b. Define poverty and state 5 causes of poverty

2c. What are the problems of indigenization in Nigeria

2d. How is economic growth different from economic development?

3a. Define the term privatization

3b. State two objectives of commercialization

3c. What is economic development? State its characteristics

3d. What is Economic plan? List & explain 4 types

SSS 3 Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.A

6.A 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.A

11.D 12.D 13.A 14.B 15.A

16.C 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.A

21.B 22.A 23.B 24.A 25.C

26.C 27.D 28.D 29.B 30.D

Economics SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

ENGLISH STUDIES ( MOCK EXAM )

SECTION A – OBJECTIVES

____ is used for shortened words and to show ownership (a) column (b) semi-colon (c) apostrophe
_____ is the correct use of the capital letters, full stop, comma and questions marks (a) exclamation (b) punctuation (c) pronunciation
____ involves a pair of lines that end with the same sequence or sound or verse (a) chorus (b) verse (c) rhymes
A _____consonant sound must go with another voiceless consonant (a) voice (b) voiceless (c) voices
Rhymes is divided into peak and____(a) codo (b) code (c) codec
____ are the words people used generally when talking about a particular subject, job or human activity (a) career (b) register (c) record
Which of these is NOT features of a formal letter? (a) two address (b) one address (c) closure/ end
The ___ tone represents the pitch falls (a) rising (b) falling (c) middle
Which one of these is NOT features of informal letter? (a) greetings (b) one address (c) two address
Diphthong is categorized into___(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
Diphthongs or impure vowels are____(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 7
Monothong is divided into ___vowels (a) long, short (b) long, longest (c) long and big
The ___ mark is used at the end to show an expressions or feelings (a) exclamation (b) punctuation (c) passion
Which one of these is not an examples of types of register/ (a) art (b) agriculture (C) country
Which of these words is NOT associated with environment (a) pollution (b) disposal (c) election
Which one of these is not associated with school? (a) register (b) motto (c) recycling
_____is a long vowel sound (a) port (b) gun (c) pull
____is an example of long vowels (a) /i/ (b) /e/ (c) /ɔ:/
_____is an example of short vowel sound (a) /ɔ:/ (b) /u/ (c) /i:/
____ is a short vowel sound (a) bird (b) said (c) part
‘Can I see him, please? Is an example of making _____ (a) controversial (b) request (c) command
‘Really” and ‘Wow’ expresses ____ (a) request (b) surprise (c) controversial
Example of /ʃ/ is ___(a) chop (b) bush (c) chat
Example of /IӘ/ is ___(a) chair (b) year (c) sewer
Example of / ɔ:/ is ____(a) coat(b) noise (c) sit
Example of /au/ is ____(a) beer (b) lounge (c) on
Example of /eӘ/ is ___ (a) my (b) there (c) who
Example of /u:/ is ____ (a) good (b) food (c) boot
Example of /Ә/ is _____ (a) gone (b) about (c) out
Example of /I/ is____(a) mat (b) sit (c) joy

SECTION B: GRAMMAR

31.They did not greeted us. They is___(a) object (b) subject

32. Advertisement have___ syllables (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6

33. The shortened form of ‘They will’ is____(a) They’will (b) They’ll (c) They will’

34. That is the boy___ I spoke to you about (a) whom (b) which (c) who

35. Which words rhymes with brain? (a) derain (b) rain

36. Which words rhymes with obtain? (a) detain (b) detail

37. Here is that book___our teacher made compulsory for us to read (a) whose (b) which (c) whom

38. Examples of Rhymes ‘Ease’ goes with____(a) seize (b) peace (c) asks

39. Monothong or pure vowels are ___(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 12

40. Which of these is not an example of phrasal verbs (a) of that (b give back (b) give up

VOCABULARY

Write 10 words associated to Government and politics in a tabular form
Write 10 words associated with technology or agriculture

LETTER WRITING- FORMAL LETTER

Write a letter to the school chairman making a complaints on the needs for the betterment of the school ( managements, teachers and the students)

SUMMARY

Summarize in 5 sentences the effects of poverty in Nigeria
Summarize in 3 sentences the effects of the new naira note to the Nigeria economy and the citizens

WORDS OF THE WEEK:

41. To be stubborn ___ (a) obstinate (b) cruel

42. Food laid and serve____(a) salvet (b) buffet

43. To Lie or deceive ___(a) adamant (b) ruse

44. Having lot of space inside (a) capacious (b) ennui

45. Something effective ____(a) furtive (b) efficacious

46. Something practical____(a) dogmatic (b) elegy

47. Abandoned or left behind (a) fecund (b) forlorn

48. Dominate or influence ___(a) hegemony (b) ornate

49. To move carelessly___ (a) florid (b) cavort

50. Taking place at night___(a) adept (b) nocturnal

SSS 3 English Studies Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.B 9.C

10.B 11.A 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.C 16.C 17.A

18.C 19.B 20.B 21.B 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.B

26.B 27.B 28.B 29.B 30.B 31.B 32.B 33.B

34.A 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.A 39.D 40.A 41.A

42.B 43.B 44.A 45.B 46.A 47.B 48.A 49.B

50.B

Financial Account SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

FINANCIAL – ACCOUNTING

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The management of one’s personal money is termed as _____ budget B. scale of preference C. personal finance D. consumption
All these are sources of fund that may be available for an individual except____ (A) loan from a bank (B) trade credit (C.) issue of shares (D.) personal savings
The arrangement of needs in order of importance is known as ____(A.) personal finance (B.) choice (B) budget (D.) scale of preference
Governments prepare budget _____ monthly B. yearly C. quarterly D. bi-annually
The estimate of income and expenditure is called_____ (A) scale of preference (B.) consumption (C) budget (D.) personal finance
Public sector accounting is done on ————-basis (a)credit (b)cash (c)hire purchase (d)installmental payment
Government parastatal accounting system is on ————-basis (a)cash (b)accrual (c)General (d)all of the above
Public sector accounts reports are to the ————-(a)shareholders (b)directors (c)public (d)customers
The chief accounting officer to the government ministries is (a)auditor general (b)minister of finance (c)secretary to the federal government (d)accountant general of the federation
The formula for calculating emolument where employees are on step 4 is__ (a) (4-1) x salary (b)(4+1) x salary (c) (4-1) incremental rate (d) (4-1) incremental rate + basic salary
A___is quantitative statement of income and expenditure (A) budget (b) Account (c) income
The____cost budget is prepared to show the analysis of the basic salary and allowances of the staff members of each government ministry department in a particular year. (a) personnel (b) personal (c) imprest system
A___ Account is a system of accounting adopted to record the transactions of a small part of a business organization which has or has not some degree of independence (a) branch (b) trade (c) discount
_____ is used when the goods concerned are perishable so that branch managers can use their discretions to avoid losses (A) at cost price (b) at selling price (c) at cost plus a percentage
The common items which are included in an individual’s personal budget are the following except___(a) money (b) food (c) house rent (d) clothing
If the cost of goods is N10,000 and there is a 25% mark-up on it, then the selling price is ———-(a)N10,000 (b)N10,200 (c)N12,500 (d)N13,500
If the cost of an article is N500 the company’s profit margin is 20% then the selling price is ———-(a)N6250 (b)5000 (c)72250 (d)6000
If the margin allowed by a business is 25% then the business mark-up is ———-(a)20% (b)30% (c)311% (d)50%
If the profit on cost price is 1/5 then the profit on selling price is ———-(a)1/2 (b)1/3 (c)5% (d)1/4 (e)1/6
The margin on sales of a trader is 15% therefore the trader’s mark-up is ———-(a)12/7 (b)15/17 (c)3/20 (d)3/17
The major account in Joint Venture are ____(a) Individual Joint Ventures account and memorandum(b) Profit and Loss account and balance sheet (c) appropriation account and balance sheet (d) cash book and ledger
Expenditure of each joint venture is ____(a) credited (b) debited (c) all of the above (d) none of the above
Revenue of each joint venture is ______ (a) credited (b) debited (c) none of the above (d) all of the above
In memorandum account revenue is ____ (a) Debited (b) Credited (c) averted (d) included
In memorandum account expenditure is __(a) include (b) excluded (c) debited (d) credited
The person that sends goods to another person for the purpose of selling it is (a) collector (b) consignor (c) consignee (d) none of the above
The person who received the goods on behalf of another is (a) consignor (b) collector (c) consignee (d) none of the above
Consignment of goods means (a) receiving of goods (b) producing of goods (c) sending of goods (d) all of the above
In Goods sent on consignment account, consignment is (a) Debited (b) credited (c) all of the above (d) none of the above
In consignment account, advertisement is (a) revenue (b) expenses (c) income (d) none of the above

SSS 3 Financial Account Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.C

6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B

11.A 12.A 13.A 14.A 15.A

16.C 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.C

21.D 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.B

26.B 27.C 28.C 29.A 30.B

THEORY

1a. What is personal finance?

1b. Enumerate five essential items in a personal budget

1c. State two uses of a budget.

2a. Define Public sector accounting

2b. List seven items of government expenditure

2c. What is Depreciation? List 10 uses of general journal

2d. What is a branch accounts

2e. State the pricing methods in branch accounts

3. Suzi Ltd operates a head office in Lokoja and branch office in Lagos. All goods are purchased by Lokoja and sent to Lagos at cost plus 25%. The following information were given for the year ended 31/12/04.

Credit sales 3,500

Goods sent to branch at cost 50,000

Returns to head office at cost 500

Cash takings remitted to H.O. 10,000

Stock at close at cost price 12,500

Cash takings stolen 150

Sundry expenses paid out of takings 950

Goods stolen at cost 40

Allowances off selling price 100

You are required to prepare

(a) Branch A/C in the head office books including the necessary A/Cs

(b) The P & L A/C for the ended 31/12/04

The system of accounting the head office uses is the memorandum column method.

SOLUTION

Step 1: Calculate the selling price (or invoice price) using the mark-up of 25% on cost

Selling price of goods sent to branch

Profit = mark-up x cost price

= 25/100 x 50,000 = N12500

Selling price = cost + profit

= 50,000 + 12500

= N623,500

Selling price of returns to Head office

= cost + mark-up

= N500 + (25/100 x 500)

S. P = N500 + 125 = N625

Selling price of stock at close

= cost + mark-up

= N12500 + (25/100 x 12500

S. P = N12500 + 3,125 = N15,625

Selling price of goods stolen

= cost + mark-up

= N40 + (25/100 x N40)

S. P. = N40 + 10 = N50

step II: Preparation of branch stock A/C using memorandum colum

Memorandum branch stock A/C

Invoice cost Invoice cost

Price Price Price Price

N N N N

Goods sent to branch 62,500 50,000 Rent to head office 625 500

Gross profit C/D – 9140 credit sales 3500 3500

x cash remitted to H. Office 10,000 10,000

cash takings stolen 150 150

sundry expenses 950 950

goods stolen 50 40

Allowance off selling price 100 –

stock at close 15624 12500

62500 59140 62500 59140

Profit & loss A/C

N N

Sundry expenses 950 Gross profit B/D 9140

Cash stolen 150

Goods stolen at cost 40

Net profit 8000

9150

4a. State five characteristics of depreciable assets

4b. Explain three reasons why an accountant will consider end- of- year adjustments

4c. Differentiate between bad debts and provision for bad debts

4d. Differentiate between bank statement and bank reconciliation statement

4e. State four reasons for making provision for depreciation

5a. Explain the following : (a) bank loan (b) bank overdraft (c) standing order (d credit transfer

5b. Define the term consignment of goods

5c. Explain a. Consignor b. Consignee

Geography SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

GEOGRAPHY

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

Which of the following is a major concern of study about the population of a country? (a) Population size and distribution (b) Population growth and processes of population change (c) Characteristics or qualities of the population (d) All the above
Which of the following statements about population is correct? (a) Population is a dynamic phenomenon
(b) The number, distribution and composition of population are static (c) Population of a country always increases with time (d) Migrations do not affect the population of a country
The change in the number of inhabitants of a country during a specific period of time is referred to by which of the following terms? (a) Density of population (b) Age composition (c) Population growth (d) Absolute population
A situation whereby the population is considered too large for the availability resources is known as
(a) Density of population (b) Over population (c) Population growth (d) Absolute population
_____ refers to the rate at which children are being given birth to in a given country. (a) growth rate (b) birth rate
(c) population rate (d) development rate
Factors that make population grow can be classified broadly into physical and_____factors (a) human (b) spiritual (c) plants (d) animals
All of the following are physical factors that affect the growth of population except (a) climate (b) relief (c) soil (d) industry
All of the following are human factors that affects the growth of population except (a) soil (b) mineral resources (c) agriculture (d) industry
The Pattern of world population distribution is distributed into_____(a) four (b) three (c) five (d) two
Great Britain, France, German, Denmark, Belgium areas are highly industrialized due to the presence of
(a) petroleum (b) gold (c) bitumen (d) coal and iron
Pick out the odd one (a) China (b) India (c) Japan (d) Egypt
Natural resources like fertile farmlands, become over exploited where there is high__(a) population growth (b) birth rate (c) death rate (d) ageing population
One of these is not an advantage of low population_____(a) There will be abundance of resources in areas where there and resource endowment (b) The rate of armed robbery, car snatching etc is generally reduced. (c) There is no traffic congestion in areas of low population. (d) Pipe borne water, electricity etc are grossly under utilized
One of these is not a moderately populated area__(a) Agricultural U.S.A (b) Mediterranean Europe (c) Atacama
(d) Most part of South Asia
_______ include areas of cool temperate forest (a) Egypt (b) China (c) Europe (d) USA
Considering types of settlement, people of urban settlement are involved in different activities that includes
(a) business and manufacturing (b) fishing and farming (c) mining (d) forestry
River Nile is located in____ (a) Bangkok (b) Cairo (c) Cologne (d) London
_____ is a collection of buildings with people living in them (a) street (b) area (c) local government (d) settlement
Which is not an example of a rural settlement? (a) urban (b) village (c) hamlet (d) homestead
A _______ is the largest type of urban settlement made up of large cities with several millions of people
(a) town (b) city (c) conurbation (d) megalopolis
___is defined as the community of plants and animals living together in harmony an interacting with their physical environment.(a) biotic (b) ecosystem (c) settlement (d) environment
______ is defined as the total surrounding or medium of any organism in a given area (a) food web (b) environment (c) atmosphere (d) climate
The solid portion of the environment which contain rocks, sand, soil minerals is known as the___ (a) lithosphere (b) hydrosphere (c) atmosphere (d) biosphere
The interactions between the human social system and (the “rest” of) the ecosystem is known as__(a) environmental support (b) environmental care (c) environmental interaction (d) environmental web
_____ are organisms that cannot manufacture their own food. (a) autotrophs (b) decomposers (c) heterotrophs
(d) biotrophs
The linkage of a series of organisms in a habitat through the flow of energy of consumer levels and their nutritional sequence is___(a) food chain (b) food necklace (c) food watch (d) food brace
____ refers to the forces of nature and the activities of man that change the natural existence of the components of ecosystem (a) environmental occupation (b) environmental sanitation (c) environmental intervention (d) environmental integration
Natural intervention can be caused y the following except__(a) Desert encroachment (b) Vulcanism (c) Deforestation (d) Sea level changes
_____ exposes the soil surface and also changes the chemical composition of soil. (a) grazing (b) land pollution
(c) land reclamation (d) deforestation
One of these is not a human intervention. (a) fishing (b) industrialization (c) hunting (d) drought
One of these is not true of grazing (a) reduction of agricultural land (b) afforestation (c) compaction (d) cause of soil erosion
______ trade involves the buying of goods and services from another country into your own country (a) import (b) export (c) entreport (d) foreign
____ trade involve the selling of goods and services produced in one’s country to another country (a) import (b) export (c) entreport (d) local
____ refers to buying and selling or exchange of goods and services between one region and another in the same country or between one country and another (a) import (b) warehouse (c) trade (d) trade by barter
Which one of the following is NOT a product of mineral resources (a) timber (b) petroleum (c) tin (d) columbite
Which one of the following is NOT an Agricultural products (a) petroleum (b) timber (c) tractors (d) cotton
_____ buying and selling or exchange of goods and services between one region and another in the same country or between one country and another. (a) trade (b) exchange (c) import (d) export
Export trade involves the buying of goods and services from another country into your own country. (a) True (b) False
International cooperation is fostered between two nations which are involved in international trade. (a) True (b) False
International trade is divided into _____(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4
___ refers to steep slope or the precipitous face of a ridge. (a) knoll (b) escarpment (c) plateau (d) gorge
An extensive and broad highland area with a comparatively level surface is known as__(a) knoll (b) escarpment (c) plateau (d) gorge
An isolated peak of few metres high, associated with a highland is a/an___ (a) knoll (b) escarpment (c) plateau
(d) gorge
_____ occur when the contour lines are very close to one another or they are closely packed. (a) gentle slope
(b) steep slope (c) concave slope (d) convex slope
_____ is defined as a way of knowing whether one point or place on the map can be seen from another point or place on the same map (a) cross section (b) watershed (c) intervisibility (d) dual visibility
_____ is defined as the practice whereby relief shown by contours on map are drawn to bring out real appearance of such relief as it is on the ground. (a) cross section (b) inter-visibility (c) escarpment
_____is an area is the slope of ground expressed as a ration between the heights and the lengths of the ground slopes are of various steepness. (a) slope (b) gradient (c) concave
______ occurs when the contour lines are far apart or widely spaced (a) convex slope (b) steep slope (c) gentle slope
_____ is the opposite of concave slope. The contour lines are closely packed together at lower level. (a) concave slope (b) convex slope (c) gentle slope
_____ is a strip of highland which is elongated and narrow. He contour run almost parallel to each other (a) Plateau (b) Knoll (c) Ridge

SSS 3 Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.B 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.B

10.D 11.D 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.C 16.A 17.B

18.D 19.A 20.D 21.B 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.C

26.A 27.C 28.C 29.B 30.D 31.B 32.A 33.B

34.C 35.A 36.A 37.A 38.B 39.A 40.B 41.B

42.C 43.A 44.B 45.C 46.A 47.B 48.C 49.B

50.C

OBJECTIVES = 50 ÷2 = 25

THEORY

(ANSWER 9 QUESTIONS ONLY )

( 9 x 5 = 45)

Define Population and mention 2 factors affecting the growth of population
Define settlement and explain the two types of settlement
Define environment and list the four groups of spheres
Define Ecosystem and explain the two types of ecosystem
Explain Environmental balance and mention 3 ways they can be achieve
Explain Food chain with 2 examples
Define Food web with diagram example
Define Environmental Intervention and explain the two types
Define Trade and international trade
Mention 3 importance of international trade and factors affecting international trade
Mention 3 types of slope and explain them
Write formula for calculating gradient

Government SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

GOVERNMENT

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

ECOWAS was established in (a) 1972 (b) 1985 (c) 1975
All but one of the following were the founders of ECOWAS (a) Moamer Gaddafi (b) Eyadema (c) Yakubu Gowon
The current Secretary General of ECOWAS is (a) Mohammandu Buhari (b) John Azuma (c) Jacob Zuma
The administrative headquarters of ECOWAS is located in (a) Abuja (b) Lome (c) Accra
The fund raising headquarters of ECOWAS is located in (a) Free Town (b) Lome (c) Abidjan
The Authority of Heads of State and Governments is headed by a chairman who holds office for a period of_____ year (a) Two (b) Three (c) One
ECOWAS is made up of ____ countries (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 20
ECOWAS was established to promote ____ (a) political instability (b) economic trade (c) colonial rule
The Secretary General of ECOWAS is elected for a fixed term of (a) three years (b) four years (c) five years
ECOMOG means (a) Economic Crime Operation Monitoring Group (b) ECOWAS Monitoring Group (c) Economic Community of West African States Monitoring Group
All the following are problems of ECOWAS except (a) removal of customs duties (b) language barrier (c) ideological differences.
OPEC was established in____ (a) 1962 (b) 1970 (c) 1960
Nigeria was admitted into OPEC in the year____ (a) 1971 (b) 1970 (c) 1981
The supreme organ of OPEC is _____ (a) The Secretariat (b) The Board of Governors (c) The Conference
The annual budget of OPEC is prepared by the____ (a) Board of Governors (b) Conference (c) Secretariat
The headquarters of OPEC is located in_____ (a) London (b) New York (c) Austria.
The MDGs originated from the United Nations Millennium Declaration. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
The MDGs set concrete targets and indicators for ______reduction to achieve the rights outlined in the Declaration (a) companies (b) poverty (c) farming
Which of the following is NOT an achievements of the Millennial Development Goals (a) Reduce global maternity (b) Primary school enrollment (c) Killing
One of the challenges of MDG’s is _____ (a) Reducing poverty (b) Extreme poverty still exists (c) economic crime
What is the full meaning of NEPAD? (a) Nigeria Economic Poverty Admin (b) New Partnership for Africa ‘s Development (c) Nigeria Pandemic Day
NEPAD has played an important role in finding international markets for some of the continent’s agricultural and manufactured products. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe (d) I don’t know
The anti-police demonstrations force is called _____(a) Police academy (b) END-SARS (c) SARS-END (d) Agbekoya
As African countries are also struggling with the COVID-19 pandemic, _____ must also provide the platform for economic recovery. (a) NAI (b) NAFDAC (c) NGO (d) NEPAD
In 2008, Heads of State and Government, Ministers and representatives of Member States adopted a political declaration to address_____(a) Bribery (b) corruption (c) Africa’s development needs (d) kidnappings
The New Partnership for Africa’s Development (NEPAD) is to address the critical challenges facing the continent which is ______(a) poverty (b) killings (c) insecurity
NEPAD was officially adopted by the AU in____ as the primary mechanism to coordinate the pace and impact of Africa’s development in the 21st century. (a) 2021 (b) 2000 (c) 2002 (d) 2003
The Heads of State and Government Orientation Committee Chairperson elected in January 2013 was ____ (a) Mark Zukerberg (b) Macky Sall (c) Mark Cole
________ refers to the use of information technology by government agencies (such as relations with citizens, business and other arms of government). (a) Anti-Government (b)Ex-Government (c) SU- Government (d) E-Government
_____ is a responsive program for disaster prevention and mitigation providing a 6-hour lead-time warning to vulnerable communities against impending floods. (a) NOAH (b) NIA (c) NAVY (d) ARK
Which one of the following is NOT an advantages of Project Nationwide Operational Assessments of Hazards (a) Speed (b) Saving costs (c) Reduce transport (d)transparency
For the advantages to work the Government has to ensure that all data as to be made_____and uploaded to the Government information forums on the internet. (a) Private (b) Public (c) Counterfeit (d) Declared
Technology makes communication swifter. Internet, smartphones have enables instant transmission of high volumes of data all over the world. (a) False (b) maybe (c) I don’t know (d) True
The main disadvantage of e-governance is the_____(a) saving cost (b) loss of interpersonal communication (c) illiteracy (d) Accountability
E-governance is very difficult for____ to access and understand. (a) Educated (b) Literate (c) Illiterate
______ is a serious issue, a breach of data can make the public lose confidence in the Government’s ability to govern the people. (a) embezzlement (b) corruption (c) illiteracy (d) Cybercrime/ Leakage of information
______ is essentially the converse of followership the art of influencing and directing people in such a way that will win their obedience, confidence, respect, and loyal cooperation in achieving a common objective. (a) Fellowship (b) Leadership (c) Followership (d) Skype
_____leaders officially sanctioned based on power and authority (a) formal (b) informal (c) indirect
_____leaders unofficial leadership accorded by other members of the organization (a) Direct (b) Informal (c) formal
A_____ is a person who guides and directs other people in order to achieve a given task. (a) Director (b) HR (c) Leader (d) Manager
All of the following are E-Government Barriers except (a) privacy (b) security (c) Collaboration (d) Transparency
Leaders cannot achieve their goals without the support of followers. (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
______ leadership is characterized by personal abilities and talents that have a profound and extraordinary effect on followers. (a) Universal (b) Charismatic (c) Women (d) Men
____ leaders use strong, directive, controlling actions to enforce the rules, regulations, and relationships in the work environment. (a) student (b) democratic (c) autocratic (d) charismatic
_______ leader fails to accept the responsibility of the position. (a) Laissez-faire (b) autocratic (c) democratic (d) student
_______ leader takes collaborative, reciprocal, interactive actions with followers concerning the work and work environment. (a) Laissez-faire (b) autocratic (c) democratic (d) student
Effective followers practice self-management and self-responsibility. (a) False (b) True (c) Maybe
All of the following are types of followership except (a) dynamic (b) critical thinker (c) murders
All of the following are qualities of a good leader or successful leaders (a) Possessive self-awareness (b) Focus (c) Empowerment (d) Instability
All Of the following are roles of followers except (a) active participation (b) unavailability (c) pursuit of organizational goals (d) value of contribution

SSS 3 Government Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.B

10.C 11.A 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.C 17.A

18.B 19.C 20.B 21.B 22.A 23.B 24.D 25.C

26.A 27.C 28.B 29.D 30.A 31.C 32.B 33.D

34.B 35.C 36.D 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.D

42.A 43.B 44.C 45.A 46.C 47.B 48.C 49.D

50.B

OBJECTIVES = 50 ÷2 = 25

THEORY

(ANSWER 5 QUESTIONS ONLY )

( 5 x 9 = 45)

Identify the organs of ECOWAS.
State 4 functions of the Secretary General of ECOWAS.
Discuss 5 achievements of ECOWAS.
Highlight 5 shortcomings of ECOWAS
Highlight 4 functions of the Conference of OPEC.
State 5 aims and objectives of OPEC
List four millennial development goals.
State three achievements of the MDGs.
Identify Four challenges of the MDGs.
Give two ways some of the challenges of the MDGs can be resolved.
Give three ways of funding MDGs.
Define E-Government and state 5 Barriers
Define Leadership and5 Qualities of a good leader
Define Followership and State 3 roles
Define NOAH and state 2 advantages and disadvantages

ICT SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (1) S.S. 3

I.C.T

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

______ system is a modern digital devices stores numbers using 0 and 1 (a) binary (b) decimal (c) octal
0 and 1 is called _____ (a) kilobytes (b) bits (c) bytes
Which one of these is NOT one of the features of MS Paint (a) tool box (b) title bar (c) menu page
One of the most important software on the computer is ____(a) Ms WORD (B) Corel draw (c) Excel
______ is the collection of measure used to protect and secure data (a) data insecurity (b) data base (c) data security
Which one of these is NOT Computer ICT professional bodies in Nigeria? (a) CPN (b) NPC (c) NIG
______ is an application used for creating document (a) Ms word (b) Corel draw (c) Ms paint
____is used for preparing budget management control (a) spreadsheet (b) Ms word (c) Corel draw
Microsoft Office tools are ____ in numbers (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10
_____ is a collection information easily organised to be access, manage, and updated (a) data manager (b) data base (c) data insecurity
_____ package is the bundle of two or more computer programs used to address a specific business (a) graphics (b) application (c) worksheets
Application ____ is a program used by the users to perform one or more tasks (a) hardware (b) software (c) ware
_____ system is the software that controls manage both software and hardware resources on the computer (a) software (b) computer (c) operating
Converting 35₁₀ to base 7 is _____ (a) 50seven (b) 30seven (c) 40seven
Converting 36base 7 to base 2 is _____(a) 11011₂ (b) 10101₂ (c) 10111₂
The largest network in the world is the ____(a) website (b) application (c) internet
_____ is a collection of computers that are linked together (a) webpage (b) network (c) data
Is a collection of web pages linked to one another to form global web (a) webpage (b) website (c) e-mail
A ___ is a group of related records (a) records (b) field (c) file
A ___ is the combination of all those records form of a file (a) file (b) code (c) decode
An output statement in BASIC language is _____(a) RENAME (b) LET (c) PRINT
A software used for creating simple or complex drawing is ____ (a) artist (b) adobe (c) Ms paint
There are ____ types of records (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
___ is the part of a database table that produces incomplete information (a) records (b) column (c) rows
The part of a data base that gives a complete information about an entity Is called _____(a) column (b) lines (c) rows
The longest key on the keyboard is _____(a) tab (b) cap-lock (c) spacebar
____ item is the smallest unit of information store in computer file (a) field (b) data (c) file
CLS in Basic statement is _____(a) clean screen (b) clear view (c) clean input
Which one of these is not features of a paragraph in Ms Word (a) spacing (b) indent (c) Drop cap
Which one of these is not method of accessing files? (a) random (b) alphabetically (c) serial
_____ file carry out less task and less effective (a) automatic (b) manual (c) device
Which one of these is NOT AN EXAMPLES OF Word Processing packages? (a) Word star (b) Graphics (c) Word pro
_____ application is used for typing or creating document (a0 Ms word (b) Excel (c) Corel draw
_______ application is used for presenting of business packages (a) Ms word (b) Ms Power point (c) Corel draw
_____ application is used for payroll, register document (a) Ms word (b) Ms excel (c) Corel draw
A____ is a machine/ device which store, accept, and process data into information (a) hardware (b) software (c) computer
If LET is used to assign a value to variable the ____is used to calculate total of two numbers (a) CLS (b) REM (c) PRINT
A____ language is a set of grammatical rules for instructing a computer to perform a specific tasks (a) progams (b) programing (c) programmers
Computers consists of tow major or parts to function which are _____ and ____ (a) programs, software (b) system , software (c) hardware, software
Which one of these is not a computer by size (a) super (b) mainframe (c) laptop

Express the following using the parameters of answers questions 41 – 45 If A= 10, B=3, C=6, D=5

41. B* (C*D) = (a) 90 (b) 100 (c) 60 (d) 125

42. ( C*D) = (a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) 11

43. A + B* ( C*D) = (a) 380 (b) 390 (c) 90 (d) 100

44. ( C*D) / 5 = (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 30 (d) 35 (e) 70

45. B + CD = (a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 32

Use the table to answer the following question below from 46-50

		A	B	C	D
	Students Name	Maths	English	C.R.K	Total
1	Bola	90	80	40
2	Sade	75	85	45
3	Fawas	46	87	82
4	Bose	94	68	94
5	Tunji	59	47	10
6

46. The name of the application above is _____ (a) Spreadhsheet / Ms Excel (b) Ms word (c) Ms Paint

47. What is the total score of Bola using the formula (a) =SUM ( B:C) , (b) SUM= (B:D) , (c) =SUM (A1:C1)

48. What is the total score of all students using the formula (a) =SUM ( B:C) , (b) =SUM A6:C6 , (c) =SUM (A5:C5

49. B3:C3 is ______ (a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 135

50. What is the total of scores of all students divided by 2? (a) 501 (b) 502 (c) 509

SSS 3 ICT Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.A 8.A 9.B

10.B 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.C 17.A

18.B 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.C

26.C 27.B 28.A 29.C 30.B 31.B 32.B 33.A

34.B 35.B 36.C 37.B 38.B 39.C 40.C 41.A

42.B 43.B 44.B 45.B 46.A 47.C 48.C 49.B

50.A

THEORY-

1A. Mention five computer professionals

1B. mention five computer users

1C. Write the full meaning of the following

BEDMAS
OS
WI-FI
GUI
ITAN

2A. State the four classes of computer base on size

2B. Define ICT

2C. What is Computer ethics

2D. State Computer rules management

2E. List 5 laboratory rules and regulations / Computer ethics or rules and regulations of the computer room

3A. Given that parameters of X = A+B* (C*D), When A =10, B=3, C=6, C=6 , D=5

Solve these in expression by steps

3B. Convert the followi8ng

Convert 242₁₀ base 10 to binary
What is the equivalent of decimal number 99?
Convert 280 base 10 to hexadecimal
Convert 106 base 10 to Octal number
Convert 111 base ten to base 4

3C. Explain how to open the following on the computer

Ms Paint
Win word / Ms word
Corel draw
Ms Excel
Microsoft Power point

3D. Write their usefulness

4A. Explain or state How to do the following

How to create a folder
How to rename a folder
How to change a desktop icon and background
How to password your computer
How to know the type of operating system on the computer, THE RAM processor size and manufacturer

4B. Mention 4 elements on the computer screen (desktop)

4C. The function keys – Write four and their uses

4D. Mention 2 types of virus and two antivirus to prevent the virus

4E. Mention 3 features of paint window

5A.

	A	B	C	D	E	F
1
2
3
4
5

The letters A,B,C,D,E,F are said to represent_____? ( Column / row / cells )
The numbers 1,2,3,4,5 represents ____? ( row / column, cells )
The shaded portion is called______
The address of the shaded portion is____?
How many columns all together____?
How many rows all together____?

5B) The tool box is set of sixteen (16) tools mention five

Marketing SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

MARKETING

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

___ is referred to those strategies and techniques which utilized online ways to reach target customers (a) G-Marketing (b) E-marketing (c) Mail-marketing
Successful companies must ask themselves some tough questions about how they will promote their business online? (a) True (b) False
E-marketing also known as online or internet communication? (a) Yes (b) No (d) Never
E-marketing also known as online or internet ____(a) goods (b) communication (c) advertisement
All Of the following are examples of E-marketing except __(a) social media (b) web banners (c) calculator
One of the advantages of E-marketing is ______ (a) internet 24hours/7days (b) the cost of website (c) insecurity of credit cards
One of the disadvantages of E-marketing is____(a) insecurity (b) the cost of design (c) instant update
Online marketing has become so successful because it allows companies to target their advertising based on certain (a) geographic (b) demographic (c) consumer
The right by law to be the entity which determines who publish goods online and copy is called___(a) management (b) copyright (d) advantages
The ethical way for companies to handle customer data is clear is take care of____ (a) websites (b) data (c) personal information
____ access the website through a vulnerability in the server’s hosting system which allows them to gain access to private information stored on that server or similar servers (a) webinar (b) hackers (c) content
Many online marketers choose to advertise products and services through___(a) radio (b) ads (c) application game
A person who has the ability to influence many consumers in purchasing goods or services. (a) motivator (b) webinar (c) influencer
______ is someone with a large following on social media platforms such as Twitter, Facebook and Instagram (a) social media influence (b) Content creator (d) designer
One of the most common source of business funds is ____(a) self-financing (b) family and friends (c) financial institution
Which is to consider when looking for a good location for your business? (a) money (b) nearness to market (b) gutter (c) electricity
Which of the following is not steps in setting up a personal marketing outlet (a) business name (b) market research (c) age difference
One of the following is not among the 3 key questions when making plans?(a) where are we now? (b) where are we going?(c) what is our name?
____ is the process of arranging people and other resources to carry out plans and accomplish objectives (a) organizing (b) management (c) advertising
___ is the process by which managers set objectives, asses the future and develop courses of action to accomplish these objectives (a) managing (b) planning (c) organizing
Starting a new business is both exciting and rewarding, but it is also full of___ (a) challenges (b) hope (c) backup
___ are the activities of acquiring goods or services to accomplish the goals of an organization (a) purchasing and demand (b) purchasing and supply (c) consumer right
The company keeps better selling items in stock while passing on products that sit on store shelves collecting dust (a) True (b) False
___ is also a big part of managing purchasing and supplies at set intervals (a) market (b) purchasing (c) inventory (d) warehouse
____ is the persuasion of people to buy products and services (a) buying (b) selling (c) social media
The ability to uncover potential new customers often separates the successful from the unsuccessful sales person is called ___(a) prospecting (b) pre-approach (c) approach
___ is the step when a conscious effort is expended to establish actual contact with the prospect. As first impressions are crucial in personal selling (a) prospecting (b) pre-approach (c) approach
____record show the amount collected as loan and subsequent repayment (a) loan (b) sales (c) purchase
___records show all those who bought goods on credit from you and the amounts (a) loan (b) sales (c) purchase (d) debtors
___records show all the sales made on a daily basis (a) loan (b) sales (c) purchase

THEORY

– Answer only 3

1. Explain purchasing and supply of goods and services

2. Explain selling and bargaining skills

3. Define selling and state the process of selling

4. State those skills a person selling must possess.

5. Explain fund management and explain 2 source of fund

6. Explain E-marketing and 2 merits and demerits

SSS 3 Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.B

10.C 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.B 17.C

18.C 19.A 20.B 21.A 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.B

26.A 27.C 28.A 29.D 30.B

Mathematics SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

S.S.S THREE ( SENIOR CLASS 3)

MATHEMATICS ( MOCK EXAM)

SECTION A:

Instruction: Answer all questions

SECTION A OBJECTIVES

1. Simplify 0.000215 x 0.000028 and express your answer in standard form [a] 6.03×10⁹

[b] 6.02 x 10⁹ [c] 6.03 x 10^-9 [d] 6.02 x 10^-9

2. Factorize: x + y ax – ay [a] (x-y) (1-a) [b] (x+y)(1+a) [c] (x+y)(1-a) [d] (x-y)(1+a)

3. A car uses one litres of petrol for every 14km. If one litre of petrol costs N63.00, how far can the car go with N900.00 worth of petrol? [a] 420km [b] 405km [c] 210km [d] 200km

4. Correct 0.002473 to 3 significant figures. [a] 0.002 [b] 0.0024 [c] 0.00247 [d] 0.0025

5. Simplify: 1¹/₂ + 2¹/₃ x ¾ – ½ [a] -2¹/₃ [b] – 2¹/₀ [c] 2¹/₈ [d] 2³/₄

6. The sum of 2 consecutive whole numbers is 5/6 of their product. Find the number

[a] 3,4 [b] 1,2 [c] 2,3 [d] 0,1

7. What is the value of m in the diagram?

[a] 20⁰ [b] 30⁰ [c] 40⁰ [d] 50⁰

4m-15⁰ m+75^o

8. A casting is made up of copper and Zinc. If 65% of the casting is zinc and there are 147g of copper, what is the mass of the casting? [a] 320g [b] 420g [c] 520g [d] 620g

9. Given that p= {x: 1 < x < 6} and Q = {x: 2 < x < 10}, where x is an integer. Find n (Pn Q).

[a] 4 [b] 6 [c] 8 [d] 10

10. The sum of 6 and one-third of x is one more than twice x. Find x. [a] x = 7 [b] x = 5 [c] x = 3 [d] x = 2

11. Given that T = {x: – 2 < x < 9} where x is an integer. What is n (T)?

[a] 9 [b] 10 [c] 11 [d] 12

12. An empty rectangle tank is 20cm long and 120cm wide. If 180 litres of water is poured into the tank, calculate the height of the water? [a] 6.0cm [b] 5.5cm [c] 5.0cm [d] 4.5cm

13. Given that 5ⁿ⁺³/25ⁿ⁺³ = 5⁰, find n.

[a] n = 1 [b] n = 2 [c] n = 3 [d] n = 5

14.

Numbers of pets	0	1	2	3	4
Number of students	8	4	5	10	3

The table shows the number of pets kept by 30 students in a class. If a student is picked at random from the class, what is the probability that he/she kept more than one pet?

[a] ¹/₅ [b] ²/₅ [c] ³/₅ [d] ⁴/₅

15. The sum of the exterior angles of an n-sided convex polygon is half the sum of its interior angles. Find n. [a] 6 [b] 8 [c] 9 [d] 12

16. What is the length of a rectangle garden whose perimeter is 32cm and area 39cm²?

[a] 25cm [b] 18cm [c] 13cm [d] 9cm

17. P In the diagram, QR//ST,

/PQ/ = PR and <PST=

Q R 75^o, find the value of y?

[a] 105⁰ [b] 110⁰ [c] 130⁰ [d] 150⁰

S 75⁰T

18. Bala sold an article for N6,900.00 and made a profit of 15%. If he sold it for N6,600.00 he would make a: [a] Profit of 13% [b] Loss of 12% [c] Profit of 10% [d] loss of 5%

19. If log 2 = x, log 3 = y and log 7 = z, find, in terms of x, y and z, the value of log ²⁸/₃.

[a] 2x + y – 2 [b] 2x + z – y [c] x + y [d] x + z – y

20. The diameter of a bicycle wheel is 42cm, if the wheel makes 16 complete revolutions, what will be the total distance covered by the wheel? [Take II = ²²/₇] [a] 672cm [b] 1056cm [c] 2112cm

[d] 4224cm

21. If y+2x=4, and y-3x=-1 find the value of (x+y)? [a] 3 [b] 2 [c] 1 [d] -1

22. Simplify 16⁵/4 x 2 ^-3 x 3⁰ (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 10 (e) 20

23. Mensah is 5years old and Joyce is thrice as old as Mensah , in How many years will Joyce be twice as old as Mensah? (a) 3 years (b) 10 years (c) 5 years (d) 15 years

24. If x=3 , y=2 , and z =4 , what is the value of 3^x2-2y+z ? (a) 17 (b) 27 (c) 35 (d) 71

25. The sum of 6 and one-third of x is more than twice x , find x? (a) x=7 (b) x=5 (c) x=3 (d) x=2

26. Given that T= (x:-2< 9) where x is an integer, what is n(T)? (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12

27. Solve the inequalities 3(x+1) < 5 (x+2) +15 (a) x> -14 (b) x> -14 (c) x< -11 (d) x> -11

28. A rectangle has length xcm and width (x-1)cm. If the perimeter is 16cm, find the value of x? (a) 3 ½ cm (b) 4cm (c) 4 ½ cm (d) 5cm

29. Simplify √108 + √125 – √75?

[a] √3 + 5√5 [b] 3 + 5√5 [c] 3 – 5√5 [d] √3 – 5√5

30. Simplify 2-18m²

1+3m

[a] 2(1+3m) [b] 2(1-3m) [c] 2(1-3m²) [d] 2(2+3m²)

31. Express correct to three significant figures 0.003597 [a] 0.359 [b] 0.004 [c] 0.000360 [d] 0.00359

32. Find the distance between the each pair of points: (3, 4) and (1, 2) (a) 2units (b) 3 units (c) 4 units

33. Find the distance between the each pair of points: (3, – 3) and (- 2, 5) (a) 9.41units (b) 9.43 units

34. Find the equation of the line passing through (2,-5) and (3,6) (a) y – 11x + 27 = 0 (b) y – 11x + 24 = 0

35. The angle between parallel lines is 0⁰ because they have the same gradient (a) false (b) true

36. Angle between two______ lines is 90⁰ and the product of their gradients is – 1 (a) perpendicular (b) semi-circle (c) parallel

37. Showing that the lines y = -3x + 2 and y + 3x = 7 are parallel? (a) the lines are not perpendicular (b) the lines are perpendicular (c) there is not line to perpendicular

38. The process of finding the derivative of f(x) is called____ (a) curve (b) gradient (c) differentiation

39. Find from first principle, the derivative of y = x² (a) 2x (b) 3x (c) 4x

40. Find the derivative of 2x³ – 5 x² + 2 (a) dy/dx = 6x² – 10x (b) dy/dx = 5x² – 10x (c) dy/dx = 6x² – 11x

SSS 3 Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.A 10.C

11.C 2.A 13.C 14.C 15.A 16.C 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.C

21.A 22.C 23.C 24.B 25.C 26.C 27.D 28.C 29.B 30.A

31.C 32.A 33.B 34.A 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.A 40.A

THEORY

1A. Find the distance between the each pair of points: a. (3, 4) and (1, 2) b. (3, – 3) and (- 2, 5)

Solution:

Using l =√(x₂ – x₁)² + (y₂ – y₁)²

l = √(3 – 1)² + (4 – 2)²

l = √2² + 2²

l = √8 = 2√2 units

l = √(3 – (-2)² + (-3 – 5)²

= √5² + (-8)²

= √25 + 64 = √89 = 9.43 units

1B. Find the equation of the line with gradient 4 and y-intercept -7.

Solution

m = 4, c = – 7,

Hence, the equation is; y =4x – 7.

1C. Find the equation of the line with gradient -8 and point(3, 7).

Solution

m = – 8, (x1, y1) =(3,7)

Equation: y – 7 = – 8(x – 3)

y = -8x + 24 +7

y = -8x + 31

2A. Show that the lines y = -3x + 2 and y + 3x = 7 are parallel.

Solution:

Equation 1: y = -3x + 2, m₁ = -3

Equation 2: y + 3x = 7,

y = -3x + 7, m₂ = – 3

since; m₁ = m₂ = – 3, then the lines are parallel

2B. Calculate the acute angle between the lines y=4x -7 and y = x/2 + 0.5

Solution:

Y=4x -7, m1= 4, y=x/2+0.2, m2 =1/2.

Tan O= 0.5 – 4. = -3.5/3

1 + (0.5*4)

Tan O =- 1.1667

O=tan-1(-1.1667) = 49.4

2C. Find the derivative of the following with respect to x: (a) x⁷ (b) 5x² – 3x

Solution

a. Let y = x⁷ dy/dx = 7 x^7-1= 7x⁶

b. Let y = 5x² – 3x dy/dx = 10x – 3

3A. Find the derivative of the following 1) 2x³ – 5 x² + 2 2)3x² + 1/x

Solution

1. Let y = 2x³ – 5x² + 2 2. Let y = 3x²+ 1/x = 3x² + x^-1

dy/dx = 6x² – 10x dy/dx = 6x – x^-2 = 6x – 1

x²

3B. Differentiate the following with respect to x. (a)x² + 1

1 – x²

Solution:

y = x² + 1

1 – x²

Let u = x² + 1 du/dx = 2x

v= 1 – x² dv/dx = – 2x

dy = vdu- udv

dxdxdx

v²

dy/dx = (1 – x²)(2x) – (x² + 1)(-2x)

(1 – x²)²

= 2x – 2x³ + 2x³ + 2x

(1 – x²)²

dy/dx = 4x

– x²)²

3C. Find the maximum and minimum value of y on the curve 6x – x².

Solution:

y = 6x – x²

dy/dx = 6 – 2x

equatedy/dx = 0

6 – 2x = 0

6 = 2x

X = 3

The turning point is (3, 9)

4A. Find the value of α² + β² if α + β = 2 and the distance between the points (1, α) and (β, 1) is 3 units.

4B.The vertices of the triangle ABC are A (7, 7), B (- 4, 3) and C (2, – 5). Calculate the length of the longest side of triangle ABC.

4C. Using the information in ‘2’ above, calculate the line AM, where M is the mid-point of the side opposite A.

4D. Find the equation of the line with gradient -8 and point(3, 7).

Solution

m = – 8, (x1, y1) =(3,7)

Equation: y – 7 = – 8(x – 3)

y = -8x + 24 +7

y = -8x + 31

5A. Calculate the acute angle between the lines y=4x -7 and y = x/2 + 0.5.

Solution:

Y=4x -7, m1= 4, y=x/2+0.2, m2 =1/2.

Tan O= 0.5 – 4. = -3.5/3

1 + (0.5*4)

Tan O =- 1.1667

O=tan-1(-1.1667) = 49.4

5B. Find from first principle, the derivative of 1/x

Solution

Let y = 1

y + y = 1

x + x

y = 1 – y

x + x

y = 1 – 1

x + x x

y = x – (x + x)

(x +x)x

y = x – x – x

x² + xx

dy = -x

x²+ x

y = -1

x x² + x

Lim x = 0

dy = -1

dx x²

5C. Find the derivative of the following with respect to x: (a) x⁷ (b) x^½ (c) 5x² – 3x (d) – 3x² (e) y = 2x³ – 3x + 8

Solution

a. Let y = x⁷

dy/dx = 7 x^7-1= 7x⁶

b. Let y = x ^½

dy/dx = ½ x^{½ -1}= ½ x^{– ½} = 1

2√x

c. Let y = 5x² – 3x

dy/dx = 10x – 3

d. Let y = – 3x²

dy/dx =2× – 3x^2-1 = – 6x

e. Let y = 2x³ – 3x + 8

dy/dx= 3 x 2x^3-1– 3 + 0

= 6x² – 3

Physics SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

PHYSICS

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

____ field is a field representing the joint interaction of electric and magnetic forces. (a) electromagnetic (b) velocity (c) capacity heat
The force on a charge Q moving with a velocity V (less than the velocity of light) is given as____(a) F = q (M + v x B) (b) F = q (E + v x B) (c) F = q (H + v x B)
A conductor carrying an electric current, when placed in a magnetic field does not experiences a mechanical force. (a) False (b) Maybe (c) True
A ___rod is placed across the rails (a) heat (b) copper (c) non-metal
If two parallel current-carrying conductors are arranged side by side, it is clear that each conductor is in the magnetic field of the other (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
A rectangular coil of insulated wire, known as ____ (a) armature (b) accumator (c) commutator
______ is the effect resulting from the interaction between an electric current and a magnetic field (a) electromagnetic (b) electromagnetism (c) induction
This effect brings about induced electromagnetic force (e.m.f) and the resulting current is called (a) induced current (b) expand current (c) exothermic current
An instrument used for detecting and measuring small electric currents is called____(a) anemometer (b) ergometer (c) galvanometer
_____ is a device which produces electricity based on electromagnetic induction by continuous motion of either a solenoid or a magnet (a) Alternator (b) engine (c) Capacitor
In an external circuit, the current is at a maximum value at___and minimum value at___ (a) 900, 2000, (b) 900, 2700 (c) 900,2800
_____ induction is produced when two coils are placed close to each other and a changing current is passed through one of them which in turn produces an induced e.m.f in the second coil (a) mutual (b) force (c) magnetic
The____ converts an alternating voltage across one coil to a larger or smaller alternating voltage across the other (a) alternator (b) D.C generator (c) transformer
Which of the following is not a loss of energy in a transformer? (a) flux leakage (b) eddy currents (c) water supply
Which of the following is not uses of transformer? (a) car ignition system (b) hygrometer (c) power stations
The electric circuit in which an alternating current flow is called an____circuit (a) alternating (b) exothermic (c) ion
_____ is defined as the opposition given to the flow of current in an a.c. circuit through a capacitor (a) capacity reactance (b) heat capacity (c) specific heat
_____ was later awarded the Nobel prize for the discovery of “electrons” (A) Lenz (b) Faraday (c) Sir Joseph John Thomson
As in No. 18. His work is based on an experiment called____ (a) magnetic field (b) cathode ray (c) gas
Rutherford, a student of J. J. Thomson modified the atomic structure with the discovery of another subatomic particle called (a) “Nucleus” (b) Ions (c) Rays
Which of the following statement is not true of the isotope of an element? They A. Are atoms of the same element B. Have the same chemical properties C. Have the same atomic mass D. Have the same mass number
Which of the following representation is correct from an atom X with 28 electrons and 30 neutrons? A. ³⁰₂₈X B ²⁸₃₀X C ⁵⁸₃₀X D. ⁵⁸₂₈X E. ³⁰₂X
The temperature at which the water vapors present in the air just sufficient to saturate it is referred to as (a) relative humidity (b) vaporization (c) dew point (d) condensation point (e) no answer
If the pressure of the vapor on top of an enclosed liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure, what will be the temperature of the liquid enclosed? (a) room temperature (b) boiling point (c) freezing point (d) standard temperature
The SI unit of linear expansivity is ……… A. per Celsius B. per Fahrenheit C. per Kelvin D. per Joules
Bohr theory provides evidence for the A structure of the atom B. positive charge of an electron C existence of energy level in the atom D. positive charge on a proton
Which of the following particles determine the mass of an atom? A. protons and neutrons B. Neutrons only C. protons and electrons D. Neutrons and electrons
Which of the following names is not associated with the models of the atom. A. Isaac Newton B. Neils Bohr C. J.J. Thompson D. Ernest Rutherford E. John Dalton
____ is the process in which two or more light nuclei of elements combine together to form a heavier nucleus with release of both energy and radiation (a) nuclear fusion (b) nuclear fission (c) nuclear reaction
The process in which the nucleus of a heavy element is split into two nuclei of nearly equal mass with a release of energy and radiation is called____ (a) radiation (b) atomic bomb (c) nuclear fusion

SSS 3 Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A

6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.A

11.B 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.B

16.A 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.A

21.C 22.D 23.C 24.B 25.D

26.C 27.A 28.A 29.A 30.B

THEORY

1a. Define electromagnetic field

1b. State Fleming’s left-hand rule method

2a. What is a transformer?

2b. Define Electromagnetism

3a. State Faraday’s Law of magnetic induction

3b. State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction

4a. A current of 0.6 A is passed through a step-up transformer with a primary coil of 200 turns and a current of 0.1 A is obtained in the secondary coil. Determine the number of turns in the secondary coil and the voltage across if the primary coil is connected to a 240 V mains.

Solution

Np / Ns = Vp / Vs = Ip / Is = Ns = (0.6 × 200) / 0.1 = 1200 turns

Vp = 240 V hence Vs = (240 × 1200) / 200 = 1440 V

4b. A step-up transformer has 10,000 turns in the secondary coil and 100 turns in the primary coil.

An alternating current of 0.5 A flows in the primary circuit when connected to a 12.0 V a.c. supply.

a) Calculate the voltage across the secondary coil
b) If the transformer has an efficiency of 90%, what is the current in the secondary coil?

Solution

a) Vs = (Ns / Np) × Vp = (10,000 × 12) / 100 = 1200 V
b) Power in primary = Pp = Ip × Vp= 5.0 × 12 = 60 W

Efficiency = Ps / Pp × 100% but Ps = Is Vs

Is = (60 × 90) / (1200 × 100) = 0.045 A

5a. Mention four effect of thermal expansion of solid

5b. Mention four the advantages and disadvantages of thermal expansion of solid

Write short notes on (a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion (c) Nuclear reaction

Agric Science SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR CLASS THREE ( S.S.3)

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE

2^ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural marketing agent in Nigeria? (a) Consumers (b) co-operative society (c) Producer (d) consumers
Establishing a specified characteristics that your product must co-norm to is ____(a) sorting (b) pricing (c) standardization (d) promotion
____ buys produce from farmers in raw state and coverts them to usable or consumable forms (a) Middle men (b) Marketing board (c) Processors (d) Wholesalers
The disadvantage of buy produce directly from farmers is (a) the produce are usually at the freshest state (b) produce price is at the cheapest (c) produce are purchased at inflated prices if there is scarcity (d) None of the above
____ enables a marketer generate adequate information about targeted market (a) Research (b) Sorting (c) Standardization (d) Promotion
___ is the mechanism by which insurer provides financial compensation to the insured in an attempt to place the insured back to the position he was before the loss A. Premium B. Loan C. Indemnity D. Subsidy
All these are forms of agricultural insurance policy except A. Crop insurance B. Livestock insurance C. Marine insurance D. Motor vehicle insurance
___ deals with the insurance of human life either in death, retirement or disability. A. Crop insurance B. Specific enterprise insurance C. Livestock insurance D. Life assurance
___ is the consideration given by the insured in return for the insurer’s undertaking to indemnify the insured in the manner agreed on the happening of a specified occurrence. A. Premium B. Loan C. Indemnity D. Subsidy
Agricultural risk includes the following except A. Personal risk B. Yield risk C. Price risk D. Premium risk
An effective way of ensuring built in resistance to disease in calves is to (a) vaccinate calves at weaning (b) allow calves access to colostrums (c) ensure regular veterinary check-up (d) observe proper quarantine e) give balanced diet
Disease causing organisms are referred to as a. vectors b. pathogens c. pests d. insect
Animal diseases are generally caused by the following except a. protozoa b. nematode c. virus d. fungi
An animal is said to be resistant to a disease if the a. animal easily succumb to infection by the disease. b. presence of the disease pathogen does not cause expression of disease symptoms. c. animal is able to endure the effect of the disease. d. animal has no antibodies in its blood.
The factors that can predispose animals to diseases include the following except (a). poor housing (b). immunity (c). malnutrition (d). unfavourable weather
The best control measure for rinderpest disease in cattle is (a). sanitation (b). isolation (c). eradication of infected stock (d). vaccination
The part of the body affected by newcastle disease of poultry are the (a). nervous system and respiratory tract (b). digestive and circulatory system (c). reproductive and excretory tracts (d). air sac and the comb
The general symptoms of malnutrition in animals include the following except (a). retarded growth (b). increase in body size (c). low production d. susceptibility to disease
Newcastle disease affects the following animals except (a). goat (b). chicken (c). turkey (d). duck
Which of the following is not a viral disease? (a). Anthrax (b). Fowl pox (c). Gumburo (d). Rinderpest
Which of the following livestock diseases is transmitted by tick? (a) Coccidiosis (b) aspergillosis (c) brucellosis (d) red water fever
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by protozoa (a) trypanosomiasis (b) Coccidiosis (c) red water fever (d) aspergillosis
When a cattle is observed to be sleeping constantly among the flock, it’s most likely suffering from (a) trypanosomiasis (b) coccidiosis (c) red water fever (d) aspergillosis
The disease that causes abortion in cattle at the later stage of pregnancy is (a) milk fever (b) pneumonia (c) brucellosis (d) foot and mouth
Trypanosomiasis can affect the following animals except (a) fowl (b) cattle (c) sheep (d) goat
The following are endoparasites of livestocks except (a). insect bug (b). roundworm (c). liverfluke (d). tapeworm
The primary host of tapeworm is___ (a). man (b). sheep (c). goat (d). pig
The head of tapewom is otherwise referred to as (a). sucker (b). scolex (c). hook (d). anchor
The following are economic importance of tapeworm except (a). causing reduced growth (b). causing indigestion (c). causing death (d). causing increased weight in animals
Which of the following is NOT a method of preventing diseases? (a). quarantine (b). vaccination (c). hygiene (d). eating too much
The following are ectoparasites of livestock except (a). tick (b). louse (c). flea (d). roundworm
Which of the following is NOT an endoparasite of livestock? (a). Earthworm (b). tapeworm (c). roundworm (d). liverfluke
Attack of lice on animals can be controlled by the following except. (a). vaccination (b). dipping (c). avoid overcrowding (d). spraying with insecticide
Regular sucking of blood of animals by ticks can lead to a disease called__ (a). anaemia (b). trypanosomiasis (c). ringworm (d). coccidiosis
Trypanosomiasis affect the following animals except (a). fowl (b). goat (c). cattle (d). sheep
Which of these livestock parasites possesses proglottides? a) liver fluke b) roundworm c) tapeworm d) trypanosome e) tick
The water snail is important in the life cycle of a) roundworm b) tapeworm c) liverfluke d) coccidium e) tick
When a farmer tries to eradicate snails from his pastures, he is attempting to to control a) ticks b) tapeworms c) trypanosomiasis d) liver flukes
Liverflukes infestation causes disturbance in lipid digestion because it a) blocks the passage of fat to intestine b) blocks the bile duct and reduces secretion of bile c) destroys the lipase enzyme d) prevents fat excretion
Diseases of animals that can be transferred to humans are a) nutritional b) physiological c) zoonotic d) parasitic
The brownish, flattened and leaf like parasites found in cattle are called a) tapeworms b) liverflukes c) ticks d) roundworms e) lice
Which of these livestock diseases is transmitted by ticks? A) red water b) Coccidiosis c) Aspergilosis d) trypanosomiasis e) Brucelliosis
The commonest ectoparasite of birds are a) lice b) fleas c) mites d) ticks d) houseflies
An unproductive animal completely removed from the rest of the stock is said to be a) quarantined b) culled c) isolated d) confined e) sold
Ecto-parasites can be controlled by ____(a) administering antibodies to host (b) administering antibiotics to host (c) dipping of host (d) deworming of host
The purpose of vaccination is to ___(a) treat parasites infestation (b) prevent disease infection (c) control parasites (d) treat diseases
The most effective method of controlling ecto-parasites in farm animals is by regular (a) exposure of animals to sunlight (b) dipping of animals in a solution of pesticides (c) hand picking of ecto-parasites (d) isolation of infested animals
The following are practical measures of controlling trypanosomiasis except_____(a) spraying against the vector (b) modification of vector habitat (c) use of drug on diseased livestock (d) vaccinatings against trypanosomes
All these are controls of parasites in piggery except a) disinfecting pens b) regular cleaning of feed and water troughs c) isolating sick animals d) weekly vaccination of pigs
The commonest endo-parasite of pig are a)lice b)tapeworm c)mites d)ticks d)roundworm

SECTION B – THEORY

Answer all questions

1a. Define Agricultural marketing

1b. State 5 importance of Agricultural marketing

2a. What is Agricultural Insurance

2b. Explain briefly the following types of insurance policies

(i). Crop Insurance

(ii). Livestock insurance

(iii). Farm Vehicle insurance

2c. Give four reasons why agricultural insurance is important

3.. Live five (5) economic importance of tick and five economic importance of tapeworm

Economics SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SENIOR CLASS THREE ( S.S.3)

ECONOMICS

2^ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

In economics, the reward for labour is in the form (a) wages (b) profit (c) rent (d) interest
Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as relationship between ends and scare means which have alternative uses ‘ends here refers to (a) resources (b) wants (c) choice (d) factor
A review of occupational distribution of population from Lime to time helps us to know the (a) output (b) rate at which the populations grows (c) efficiency of the labour working population (d) number of people not employed
In which of the following economic system is the consumer referred to as ‘the king? (a) traditional economy (b) free market economy (c) free economy (d) mixed economy
A demand schedule is (a) a table containing the price of goods (b) a table showing the relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity (c) the market demand
Which of these factors does not cause a change in demand (a) taste and fashion (c) income (d) population
In any Economic system, which of the following is NOT an economic problem (a) for whom to produce
The Iwo largest producers of orude oil in Nigeria are (a) rivers and bender states (b) Niger and rivers state (c) Oyo and bendel states (0) Borno and Ondo states
When the demand for commodity is inelastic, who bears greater burden of the indirect tax (a) the producer (b) the government (o) the consumer (d) the retailer
A table which shows the price of a commodity and the quantity of it that is demanded per unit time is a (a) time series (b) demand schedule (c) time schedule (d) demand curve
The greatest disadvantage of the barter system is the need for (a) durability (b) homogeneity (e) double coincidence of wants (d) portability
All the following are sources of finance to a joint stock company except (a) equity shares (b) bank loan (c) debentures (d) cooperative thrift
Data presented in tables are usually arranged in (a) charts and tables (b) rows and columns (c) graphs and rows (d) maps and pie chart
Which of the following is NOT a function of money (a)unit of account (b) store of value (c) stability in value (d) measure of value
Mobility of labour is not affected by (a) marriage and family (b) period of training () the optimum size of population (d) cultural and religious beliefs
Which of the following is regarded as fixed cost? (a) cost of raw materials (b) cost of fuel (c) cost of light (d) rent on land
Which of the following categories of people do not gain during inflation? (a) debtors (h) businessmen (e) investors (d) creditors
A person who buys in bulk and sells in bit is a (a) manufacturer (b) sales representatives (c) retailer (d) distributor
The money paid per hour or week for work done is known as (a) wage rate (b) bonus (c) labour (d) cost
Industry can simply be defined as (a) a firm producing similar goods and services (b) different firms producing different goods (C) many firms producing different products (d) many firms producing un-identical goods and services
Which of the following are reasons for holding money instead of investing it. I. transaction motive it Precautionary motive iti. Speculative motive iv. Liquidity motive (a) iii only (b) L,ii only (c) Liiii only (d) ii, iv only
Demand in economics is synonyms with (a) needs (b) wants of the consumer () wants supported with ability to pay (d) all goods demanded in the market
The purchasing power of the Naira will fall when (a) workers are retrenched (b) there is inflation () the naira is overvalued (d) the colour of the naira is changed
The joint stock company can be a private company whose minimum membership is (a) 2 (b) 5(e)7 (d) 10
Which of the following is NOT a member of OPEC (a) Indonesia (b) Egypt (e) Venezuela (d) Iran
Which of the following are not agents of distribution (a) wholesaler (b) consumers (c) retailers (d) government agencies
The concentration of industries in one area is referred to as (a) location. of industries (b) proliferation of industries (c) localization of industries (d) pluralization of industries
Which of the following is not done by the NNPC (a) pricing of crude oil (b) exploration for crude oil (c) production of crude oil (d) refining of crude oil
One major function of the central bank is to (a) mint money (b) create money (c) act as a medium of exchange (d) control and regulate m0ney supply
The Nigeria economy can best be described as a (a) socialist economy (b) mixed economy (c) controlled economy (d) domestic economy
Economic is regarded as a science because (a) it adopts scientific method in making its analysis (b) is issues are relevant for national development (c) Subject matter studies human behaviour
The opportunity cost of a worker going to the university is__(a) transportation and entertainment (b)the wages given up to attend university (c) tuition, fees and books (d) boarding and lodging
The difference between demand and wants is in (a) desire for the commodity (b) economic value of the commodity (c) ability to pay for the commodity
A demand curve parallel to the Y-axis indicates (a) fairly elastic demand (b) perfectly elastic demand (c) perfectly inelastic demand (d) fairly inelastic demand
Price elasticity of supply can be influenced by the following factors except (a) nature of the product (b) Size of consumers’s income (c) cost of production (d) time period
The amount of money that a firm receives from the sales of its output is called (a)total revenue (b) total cost (c) total profit (d) average revenue
If a state -owned firm is sold through the stock market, the organization becomes a (a) private company (b) public limited company (C) partnership (d) public Corporation
Which of the following is a transfer income (a) dividends (b) rent (c) pension (d) interest
Direct taxes include (a) excise duty (b) specific tax (c) advolorem tax (d) capital gains tax
Which of the following is not a feature of economic (a) under development (b) mono cultural economy (c) high productivity (d) low life expectancy (d) income inequality
Which of the following resources is renewable (a) coal (b) iron ore (c) rice (d) limestone
Human wants are insatiable because wants are (a) limited while means are scare (b) unlimited and means are also unlimited (c) limited and means are also limited (d) unlimited while means are scare
A bank note is said to be a legal tender because it is__(a) printed by government (b) a store of value (c) signed by the head of state (d) backed by law
Which of the following is not a method of controlling monopoly (a) preventing mergers (b) indifenization (c) privatization (d) imposing high profit tax
Which of the flowing will increase the demand for labour? (a) increased wage rate (b) labour’s demand for output (b) low wage rate (d) low marginal productivity of labour
Inflation may occur if there is (a) excess supply Over demand (b) increase in productivity (c) excessive demand with limited supply (d) increase government spending in a depressed economy
A basic economic problem of a society is (a) high level of illiteracy (b) irregular power supply (c) population growth (d) resource allocation
State owned enterprises are more common in (a)centrally planned economics (b) mixed economics (c) capitalist economics (d) developed economics
Livestock production in West Africa is hindered mainly by (a) inadequate demand (b) pest and diseases (c) land tenure system (d) use of traditional implements
Examples of joint stock banks are (a) commercial banks (b) co-operative credit societies (c) central bank (d) development
Goods consumed out of habit have (a) elastic demand (b) perfectly elastic demand (c) inelastic demand (d) unitary elastic demand
If the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is 0.1 demand is (a) elastic (b) inelastic (c) zero elastic (d) unitary elastic
The rate of increase in utility is (a) average utility (b) increasing utility (c) total utility (d) marginal utility
Economic development may be hindered if there is__ (a) a high pool of skilled labour (b) a high rate of economic growth (c) political stability (d) rapid population growth
Money will serve as a standard of deferred payment if it is (a) homogenous (b) durable (c) easily recognized (d) stable in value
A debenture holder earns (a) commission (b) profits (c) fixed interest (d) quasi-rent
Trade between two countries is known as (a) bilateral (b) unilateral (c) multilateral (d) internal trade
Exchange control is a weapon used in regulating (a) barter trade (b) stock exchange (c) foreign trade (d) internal trade
IBRD is important to developing nations because it (a) gives aid for defence (b) offers loans for public projects (c) gives loans for legal proceedings
Which of the following will not retard economics development in West Africa (a) dependence on imports (b) population control (c) high level of illiteracy (d) low level of savings

SECTION B – THEORY

– Answer four (4) questions

1a. What is Economic development

1b. State three features of a developing country

1c. Explain any four factors that can spread up the economic development of your country

2a. Define Inflation

2b. Identify any three causes of

Demand pull inflation
(ii) Cost-Push inflation

3a. What is Subsistence farming?

3b. Distinguish between crop farming and livestock farming with specific examples

3c. Identify four measures that the government of your country can adopt to boast agricultural production

4a. Define Mobility of Labour

4b. Describe any four (4) factors influencing the supply of labour

5.. Explain any five objectives of Economics Community of West African States ( ECOWAS)

SS2 Marketing Exam Question For Second Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

MARKETING

2^ND TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

E-marketing is also called____(a) direct purchasing (b) electronic banking (c) e-mail order (d) internet business
An internal source of fund for an entrepreneur is_____(A) bank loan (b) overdraft (c) trade credit (d) retained earnings
An example of long-term source of fund for an entrepreneur is____(a) debenture (b) trade credits (c) overdraft (d) customer advances
A pricing strategy in which the buyer and seller bargain to reach an agreement on price of a product is____(a) cost-plus (b) haggling (c) skimming pricing (d) penetration pricing
Which of the following behaviours would satisfied customer exhibit? (a) buy similar products from other companies (b) pay attention to other companies product advertisement (c) talk favorably about the purchased products (d) recommend competing products for buying
Which of the following activities is not a function of merchandiser? (a) displaying products in the best location (b) identifying potential new accounts (b) maintaining and increasing shelf space (c) cleaning and displaying of products
The differentiation of a firm’s product from other competing goods is____(a) packaging (b) labeling (c) coding (d) branding
Which of the following is a source of fund that a limited liability company will not pack back? (a) debenture (b) ordinary shares (c) overdraft (d) bank loans
Marketing activities carried out in more than one country is____(a) international marketing (b) national marketing (c) home trade (d) entreport trade
A reason why E-marketing is important is that it_____(a) provides avenue for immediate inspection of products (b) offers unsolicited messages to customers (c) demonstrates practical use of products (d) offers unlimited access to customers
A challenge or marketing financial products online is that it is prone to ____(a) identify theft (b) unsolicited advertisement (c) mass promotion (d) unsolicited mails
Merchandising is best suited for ___(a) consumer goods (b) primary products (c) industrial services (d) organizational products
Electronic marketing is made possible through network of____(a) computers (b) consumer groups (c) manufacturers (d) advertising media
A skill required by an entrepreneur for successful bargaining is____(a) interpersonal skill (b) leadership skill (c) accounting skill (d) administrative skill
Which of the following factors affects the location of a retail outlet? (a) government policy (b) weather condition (c) company’s goodwill (d) product quality
Which of the following factors is considered when determining the price of a product by a manufacturer? (a) quality of the goods (b) after sales services (c) stock turnover (d) channels of distribution
A merchandiser is the individual who is responsible for the ____(a) security of goods in the retail store (b) quality control of goods produced (c) availability of products at the right position in the retail store (d) advertising of products on television
The activities that stimulate the purchase of a retail outlet is ___(a) selling (b) merchandising (c) prospecting (d) advertising
An advantage of electronic marketing is that_____(a) network is not always available (b) time restriction is non-existent (c) it is less useful for products that need physical demonstration (d) there is limitation on advertising space
The source of fund for Mr. John who got his capital from the money he kept in bank is___(a) personal saving (b) bank loan (c) plough-back profit (d) bank overdraft
Mr. Mike opened a frozen food retail outlet in Akura, close to J4 Ltd, a sole distributor of frozen food in the state. Mr. Mike would be referred to as ___(a) An agent (b) A facilitator (c) An entrepreneur (d) A factor
The factor that influences Mr. Mike’s choice of location is___(a) nearness to source of supply (b) customer consideration (c) availability of labour (d) availability of social amenities
Promoting and offering of company’s products and services for sale over the internet is electronic____(a) mail (b) purchasing (c) marketing (d) commerce
The source of finance available to a young school leaver who wants to start a small retail outlet is ____(a) bank overdraft (b) equipment leasing (c) debenture shares (d) personal savings
The source of funds that a firm can use to address cash difficulties within one year is____(a) overdraft (b) factoring (c) grants (d) leasing
Which of the following is required for electronic marketing operations? (a) internet connection (b) warehousing (c) transportation facilities (d) promotional tools
A bank loan obtained by Chief Ibrahim to start a business is an example of___(a) internal source of fund (b) personal source of fund (c) family source of fund (d) external source of fund
A pricing system that relies on customers location to charge different prices is____(a) flexible pricing (b) penetration pricing (c) geographical pricing (d) skimming pricing
The source of fund that firm can use to address cash difficulties within one year is____(a) overdraft (b) factoring (c) grants (d) leasing
The activity that is involved in making products visible, accessible and attractive to customers in a retail outlet is ____(a) personal selling (b) prospecting (c) direct selling (d) merchandising
A reason why e-marketing is important is that it___(a) provides avenue for immediate inspection of products (b) offers unsolicited messages to customers (c) demonstrates practical use of products (d) offers unlimited access to customers
The application of marketing activities beyond a country’s national boundaries is____(a) domestic marketing (b) wholesale marketing (c) retail marketing (d) international marketing
Which of the following factors is not considered while locating a market outlet? (a) availability of facilities (b) economic trends (c) capital availability (d) sources of supply
Which of the following is not an economic influencing factor in international marketing? (a) inflation (b) consumer’s income (c) currency exchange rates (d) political stability
The exchange of goods and services in international marketing is ____(a) counter trade (b) foreign trade (c) entreport trade (d) domestic trade
In marketing, market is described as ____(a) an area where buyers and sellers interacts (b) a set of all actual and potential buyers of a product (c) a collection of profit and non-profit organizations (d) a collection of people with similar interest
______ exist to bridge the gap between the manufacturer and the consumer by providing total marketing solutions to their clients (a) marketing business (b) marketing outlet (c) purchase goods (d) cost price
Marketing activities carried out in more than one country is____(a) international marketing (b) national marketing (c) home trade (d) entreport
There are firms that opt for ‘international marketing’ simply by singing a distribution agreement with a ____ (A) foreign agent (b) broker (c) manager (d) factor
One of the rules that guides international marketing is_____(a) import restriction (b) memorandum of association (c) company’s annual report (d) articles of association

SECTION B- THEORY

1a. What is Electronic Marketing

1b. Explain 3 advantages and disadvantages of electronic marketing

2. Explain 3 sources of funds for marketing business

3a. What is Bargaining?

3b. List the 2 techniques of sales and bargaining

4a. What is Fund management?

4b. What are the roles of technology in fund management

SSS 3 Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.B 8. 9.A

10.D 11.D 12.A 13.A 14.A 15.A 16.A 17.C

18.A 19.B 20.A 21.A 22.B 23.C 24.D 25.A

26.A 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.C 31.D 32.D 33.B

34.D 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.A 39.A 40.A

Agricultural Science SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SSS 3 Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Biology SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

THEORY

SSS 1 Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS3 Chemistry Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Civic Education SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A:

THEORY – ANSWER ALL

SSS 3 Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

Commerce SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A:

SSS 3 Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

CRS SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B- THEORY

Data Processing SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVES

SSS 3 Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

SS3 Economics Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

THEORY

SSS 3 Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

Economics SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVES

SSS 3 English Studies Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

Financial Account SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 Financial Account Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Memorandum branch stock A/C

Profit & loss A/C

Geography SS3 Examination Questions For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Government SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 Government Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

ICT SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 ICT Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY-

Marketing SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

THEORY

SSS 3 Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

Mathematics SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A OBJECTIVES

SSS 3 Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Physics SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SSS 3 Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Agric Science SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SECTION B – THEORY

Economics SS3 Examination Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SECTION B – THEORY

SS2 Marketing Exam Question For Second Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SECTION B- THEORY

SSS 3 Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

Leave a Reply Cancel reply