SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term Free

Senior Secondary School Questions Term 2 Year 10. Free SS1 Exam Questions 2nd term Obj and Theory –Edudelight Examination

Biology SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^ND Term Examination

Class: S.S.1

Subject: Biology

Objectives

1.  Which of the following groups embrace the rest? [a] class [b] kingdom [c] plylum [d] species
2. The group mollusca is characterized by the presence of  [a] joint appendages [b] stair-shaped  bodies [c]  backbones [d] soft non segmented bodies
3. The main similarity between unicellar and multicellular organisms is that bth  [a] perform all life activities [b] exist as filaments
4. One  important characteristics of green plant is that they  [a] possess specialized sense organs [b] are usually motile [c] are autotrophic [d] respond slowly to stimulu
5. Which of the following parts of organism are  photosynthetic? [a] amoeba and patamecium  [b] volvox and rhizopus and nostoc
6. Which of the following substances has the highest amount of energy in joules per unit weight [a] carbohydrates [b] protein [c] fat [d] vitamins
7. Which of the following juice contain the enzyme  ptyalin [a] gastric juice [b] pan creatic juice [c] succus [d] saliva
8. Trees in savannah habitats usually have heavy thick bark which mainly –[a] reduces the rate of transpiration [b] protect them from the scorching sun  [c] protect them from heavy winds [d] resist bush fire
9. In the marine food web, the source of energy to the producer comes from –[a] sea waves [b] sea water [c] sun [d] air
10. A population is best described as –[a] a group of the same species of organism living together [b] a group of animals and plants living together [c] a group of insects and grasses [d] different species of wild animals
11. A stable self sustaining environment produced by an interaction between the biotic and abiotic components is best  described as – [a] anich [b] a community [c] an ecosystem [d] a habitat
12. Which of the following factors is not associated with aquatic habitat? [a] salinity [b] turbidity [c] temperature [d] edaphic
13. Which of the following instruments is used to measure the speed of a stream? ____[a]   simple loat [b] secchi disc [c] quadrat frame [d] rain gauge
14. In an ecosystem the organism which changes light energy into stored chemical energy is the [a] consumers [b] decomposers [c] producer [d] carnivore
15. Which of the following processes does not contribute to the maintenance of the nitrogen content of the soil? [a] decomposition [b] denitrification [c] nitrification [d] nitrogen fixation
16. The following life processes are common  to both plants and animals except  [a] respiration [b] growth [c] reproduction [d] photosynthesis
17. Which of these organelles is common to both plant and animal cell? [a] chloroplast [b] controlee [c] mitochondrion [d] pyrenoid
18. Which of the following parts of a cell is not an organelle –[a] food vacuote [b] mitochondrion [c] cell wall [d] nucleus
19. The structure used for movement in Amoeba is [a] celia [b] pseudopodia [c] flagella [d] endoplasm
20. The examples of autotrophic organisms include the following except – [a] auglena [b] chlamy domonous [c] hydra [d] spirogyra

SECTION B THEORY

Instruction: Answer only four questions from this section. Question four compulsory

1a. Define the term ecology (2mks)

1b. Mention and explain two branches of ecology (4mks)

1c.  List out four ecological concept (4mks)

2a. Briefly explain the following terms

b. Biotic components [ii] producers [iii] consumers [iv] decomposers, [v] abiotic component (5mks)

 c. Mention three characteristics of tropical rainforest (3mks) (2c) mention two types of savannahs (2mks)

3a. Define the term population (2mks)

b. briefly explain four ecological factors  affecting population (4mks) (

3c State  four ecological instruments and their uses (4mks)

4a. Draw and label rain gauge and wind vain   (10mks)

5a. State the two laws of thermodynamics (4mks) (5b) briefly explain (1) symbiosis and commensalism and give two examples each (6mks)

6a. Define the term pollution (2mks)

6b. Mention four types of pollution (4mks)

6c. State four effects of noise pollution to human health (4mks)

Biology SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^ND Term Examination

Class: S.S.2  

Subject: Biology

Objectives

1.  The following life processes are common to birth plants and animals except  [a] respiration [b] growth [c] reproduction [c] photosynthesis
2. Which of these organielleles is common to both plants and animals cells? [a] chloroplast [b] centriole [c] mitochondrion [d] pyrenoid
3. Which of the following parts of a cell is not an organelle? [a] vacuole [b] mitochondrion [c] cell wall [d] nucleus
4. Which of the  following processes does not contribute, towards growth  [a] cell division [b] cell enlargement [c] cell differentiation [d] cell plasmolysis
5. The aspect of growth in living organisms include all the following process except  [a] increase in dry weight [b] reversible increase in size [c] irreversible increase in length [d] increase in number of cells
6. Which of the following heart structures is best adapted to cope with double circulation? [a] one auricle one ventricle [b] two auricles one ventricle [c] two auricle and partially divided ventricle [d] two auricles and two ventricle
7. The ventricles of the mammalian heart  have thicker muscular walls than the auricles because the [a] ventricles are large [b] ventricle receive  more blood [c] ventricles pump blood to longer distance [d] auricles have smaller capacity
8. The examples of autotrophic organism include the following except ____[a] Euglena [b] chlamydomon as [c] hydra [d] spirogyra
9. Which of the following organisms feeds both autotrophically and heterotrophically  [a] hydra [b] paramecium [c] mucor [d] Eulena
10. Which of the following juice contain the Enzyme styalim –[a] gastric juice [b] pan creactic juice [c] saccus [d] saliva
11. A change in the environment of an organism is termed  [a] sensitivity [b] impulse [c] response [d] stimulis
12. Organisms that interbreed to produce fertile off spring belong to the same [a] class [b] family [c] order [d] species
13. Growth includes the following process Except [a]  differentiation [b] enlargement [c]  mitosis [d] meioses
14. The organelle involved in the teanport of substance within a cell is  [a] gollybody [b] endoplasmic reticulum [c] ribosome [d] mitochondrion
15.  Respiration is an essential life process providing the living cells  with –[a] oxygen [b] sugar [c] energy [d] carbondioxide
16. Which  of the following enzyme is not one of the main classes of enzymes [a] sucrose [b] amylases [c] proteases [d] lipases
17. The defective cell involved in sickle –cell anemia disease are – [a] phagocytes [b] lymphocytes [c] enythroccytes [d] thrombocytes
18. Which of the following occurrences is NOT a feature of meiosis? [a] formation of two haploid cells [b] two successive nuclear cell division [c] pairing of hormologous chromosomes  at prophase [d] formation of two diploid cell
19. The reason why the yellow of blood through the capillaries is very slow is – [a] because the walls of capillaries are very thin [b] to avoid high blood pressure [c] to ensure that the individual does not get dizzy [d] to allow adequate time for exchange of materials

Section B: Theory

Instruction: Answer only four questions from this section, question compulsory any other three

1. Draw and label  fully the alimentary camal of bird (10mks)
2. Mention one engyme found in the mouth and state the function (2mks)

b. State three enzymes in the duodenum era)  their functions (3mks)

c. List out five enzymes  found in small intestine and their functions (5mks)

3a. Define the following terms [a] digestion [ii] circulatory system [iii] transport system

b. Briefly explain two types of dentition (2mks)

c. State the dental formula for (1) man [ii] rabbit (4mks)

4a. Mention three types of circulatory system (3mks)

b. In a tabular form state three differences between the arteries and veins (5mks)

5a. Enumerate five stages of mitosis (5mks)

b. State two importance of mitoses (2mks)

c. In a tabular  form mention three differences between mitosis and meiosis (3mks)

 6a. mention three types of blood cell (3mks)

b. State three functions of blood  (3mks)

c. List out four materials for transport in animal  (4mks)

Chemistry SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^ND Term Examination

Class: S.S.1  

Time: 2hrs

Subject: Chemistry  

Objectives

1.  The symbol of the element bromine is ______[a] Be [b] Br [c] B [d] Bq
2. The atomic  number of chromium is ____[a] 24 [b] 23 [c] 20 [d] 25
3. Which of the following is the  symbol of sodium  [a] Ne [b] Na [c] Ni [d] N
4. Which of the following is the Latin name of element Gold  – [a] aurum [b] cuprum [c] kalium [d] natrum
5. Calculate the RMM of caco₃ [a] 100 [b] 200 [c] 300 [d] 400
6. Calculate the RMM of NaoH [a] 40 [b] 50 [c] 60 [d] 70
7. Which of the following equations is  balance  A H2 +O₂ –> H₂ [b]    H₂ + O₂ –>2H₂O  [c]2H₂ + O₂ –> H₂O   [d 2H₂ + O₂–>2H₂O
8. When sodium atom forms the ion Nat –  [a] it gains the election [b] it gains one protein [c] It achieves a noble gas configuration [d] its atomic number increases
9. If the difference between the electron negativities of two element is larges the type of bond that can be formed between them is —-[a] covalent [b] dative [c]ionic [d] metallic
10. Which of the following is the IUPAC name of the compound NaCLO – [a] sodium tetraoxochlorate I [b] sodium tetraoxochlorate iv) [c] sodium tetraoxochlorate vi [d] sodium tetraoxochlorate vii
11. Water molecules are held together by ____[a] covalent bond [b] hydrogen bond [c] ionic forces [d] vander  waals
12. The force of attraction between covalent molecules is _____[a] dative bonding [b] hydrogen bond [c] ionic forces [d] vander waal forces
13. How many proteins does 40Ca contain? [a] 20 [b] 30 [c] 40 [d] 60  
14.  Which of the following properties of covalents conpounds is not correct? They – [a] are non-electrolytes [b] are mostly gaseous and volatile liquid [c] have low  melting points [d] have high boiling points
15. Which of the following hydroxide will readily dissolve in water  [a] Cu (OH)2 [b] NaOtt  [c] Pb (OH)2 [d] 2n (CoH)2
16. Which of the following elements is diatomic? [a] iron  [b] neon [c] oxygen [d] sodium
17. Which  of the following ions has the electron configuration 2:8:8 [a] Na+ [b] mg2+ [c] F  [d] Cl
18. Which of the following  formula for ammonium tetratoxosulphate (vi) [a] AI (NH4)₂ So₄) [b] NH₄ SO₄ [c] (N₄H)₂ SO₄ [d] NH₂ (2) SO₄
19. Which of the following is the  formula  for iron III tetraoxosulphate vi [a] (fe₂ (S0₄)₂  [b] fe SO₄ [c] fe₂ (S0₄)2 [d] (fe So₄)
20. The element neon is a diatomic ___true or false

Section B: Theory

Instruction: Answer only four questions from this section question one compulsory

1.  State five element their latin name , symbols and their atomic numbers (10mks)
2. Calculate the RMM of these compounds [i] Fe₂ So₄ 7 H2₀ [ii] Ca Co3 [iii] Naoff [iv] cuSo4  [v] (NH4)2 SO4 (10mks)
3. Define the term chemical equation (2mks)

b. State three rules to considered when balancing chemical equations    (6mks)

3c.State two laws of chemical combinations (2mks)

4. Balance the following chemical equations (i) H₂ + O₂ –> H₂O (ii) H₂ S0₄ + 2koffaq  –>K SO₄ + 2H₂O (iii) Kclo₃  –>Kcl₃ + O₂g  [iv] 3Fe + 4H2O  –>FeO + H₂

D. Mn O2 + 4Hcl  –> Mncl₂ + cl + H₂O (10mks) 

5. State the law of conservation mass and explain the law (5mks)

b.  Mention five chemical bonding (5mks)

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Agriculture SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^nd term Examination

Subject: Agriculture 

Class: SS 1

Section A

Answer all questions

1. Marble is a metamorphic rock formed from [a] limestone [b] quartzitc [c] shale [d] schist
2. Slate  is a metamorphic rock formed from [a] clay [b] limestone [c] quartzite [d] coal 
3. Quartzite is a metamorphic  rock formed from [a] sandstone [b] limestone [c] coal [d] granite
4. Graphite is a metamorphic rock formed from [a] cola [b] limestone [c] sandstones [d] granite
5. _____rocks  are formed by the roofing and solification of molten rocks called magma  [a] igneous [b] sedimentary [c] metamorphic [d] gypsum
6. Sols is formed from the disintegration of [a] water [b] sands [c] rocks [d] marble
7. These are examples of platonic igneous rocks except  [a] Basalt [b] granite [c] abbro [d] diorite
8. ____are referred to as biological components of the soil [a] organic matter [b] living organums [c] mineral matter [d] soil air
9. The process of soil formation is called [a] cracking [b] weathering [c] denudation [d] rock

The three (3) types of soil are:

10.________

11. ________

12. _________

13. The soil is made up of these components except  [a] organic matter [b] living organums [c] soil water [d] rock

14. Which of these is not a type of soil water [a] field capacity [b] in organic  water [c] capillary water [d] gravitatimal water

15. Which of these is not an agent of physical weathering [a] temperature [b] climate [c] water [d] wind

Complete the table below

Soil component	Volume (%)
16. Mineral Water
17. Water
18. Air
19. Living Organisms
20. Total

SECTION B

Answer any 4 question

1a.    Define agricultural Ecology

b.      Explain the 2 main branches of Agriculture Ecology

2a.    Define Ecosystem

b.      Name four (4) abiotic factors in a farm ecosystem

2a.    Define Ecosystem

b.      name four (4)  abiotic factors in a farm ecosystem

3a.    Define 8 Economic importance of Rocks to man

4a.    Define Soil

b.      State 4 factors of soil formation

c.       state 3 processes of soil formation

5a.    Name 5 components of the soil

b.      Explain the 3 types of soil    

Chemistry SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^nd term Examination

Subject: Chemistry

Class:  S S 1

Section A

Answer all questions

1.  There are basic particles from which matter could be made except [a] salt [b] atom [c] ion [d] molecules
2. 3ct + pHNO₃ –> 3cu (N0₃)₂ + XNO + 4H₂ 0 + 4H₂0

In the equation –>above, the value p and x respective are [a] 1 and 3 [b] 2 and 3 [c] 6 and 2 [d] 8 and 2            

3. What is the empirical formula of a hydrocarbon containing 0.08 moles of [a] CH₂ [b] CH₃ [c] CH₄ [d]₂ (2H₄)

4. If an element X with atomic number is combines with an element y whose atomic number is 8, the most likely formula of the compound formed between X and Y is  [a] Xy₂ [b] X₂y [c] X₃y₂ [d] X₂ y₃

5. The weakest attractive forces that can be observed between two molecules is [a] ionic [b] covalent [c] vanderwals

6.

The diagram above represents the formation of  [a] a metallic bond [b] A covalent bond [c] An electrovalent bond [d] A co-ordinate bond

7. The high boiling point of hydrogen fluride can be explained in terms of covalent bond [b] dative bond  [c] hydrogen bond [d] electrovalent bond

8. Water molecules are held together by [a] covalent bond [b] hydrogen bond [c] ionic bind [d] vander waals forces

9. The following are properties of electrovalent compounds except  [a] good conductors of electricity [b] they contain aggregates of ions [c] dissolve in water and other polar solvent [d] dissolve in non –polar solvent

10. Which of the three states of matter has no fixed shape , no fixed volume and least dense [a] gas [b] liquid [c] solid [d] crystals

11. Which of these does not support the phenomenon of kinetic theory [a] Brownian motion [b] diffusion [c] osmosis [d] linear expansivity

12. P1v1 – p2v2 supports [a] Charle’s law [b] Boyle’s law [c] Graham’s law [d] Avogadro law

13. Kelvin temperature can be converted into Celsius temperature by  [a] *c = k – 2 + 3 [b] k + 273 [c] *c + 273                   [d] k  + 273

                                       K                                        *c

14.  From idea gas equation , pv = nRT, the unit of n is  [a] atm dm³ [b] atm dm³ k ^-1 [c] moles [d] k-1  mole^-1    

15. Pollution of rivers by organic waste is harmful aquatic organisms because of …..[a]  scarcity of food in the water [b] reduction in the amount of dissolve oxygen [d] presence of heavy metal tons

16. Which of the following is used as water softener   [a] Na2 C03 * 10H0 [b] MgS0₇.7H₇0 [c] CaCl₂. 2H0₂² [d] Na₂ S0₄. 10H2₀

17. Which of these is not a treated water [a] distilled water [b] stream water [c] pipe borne water [d] chlorinated water

18. Which of the following has a definite shape, definite volume and fixed mass [a] liquid [b] solid [c] gas [d] molecule

19. ____is the vapourisation of liquids at all temperature

20. ______is the avogadro’s nitant  [a] 6.02 x 10²³ [b] 6.23  x 10²³ [c] 6.08 x 10²³  [d] 6.02 x 10²⁶

Section B

Answer any 3 questions and no 1 question

The above is a diagramatic representation of the  changes in the changes in the states of metter 

1.  Name all the process involved from 1 to 6
2. State boyle’s law

       b. 200 cm³ of a gas has a pressure of 510 mmhg what will be its volume of the pressure is increased to 780mmHg assuming there is no change in term temperature

        3a. State Charles state

        b. A certain mass of gas occupies 300cm3 at 35⁰. At what temperature will it have its volume reduced by half , assuming the pressure remains unchanged.  

        4a. State 4 physical properties of water 

         b. State 4 chemical properties of water

         5. The following are electronic configurations of five elements

A	B	C	D	E
2,8,2	2,8,6	2,8,8	2,8,7	2,8,3

1. Which of the element is unlikely to read with the others?
2. Which elements will react to form covalent compounds
3. Which elements will react to form ionic solid?
4. Which of these bonds is the weakest ionic bon; covalent bond, hydrogen bond?

Biology SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^nd term Examination

Subject: Biology 

Class:  S S 1

Section A: Answer all questions

1. In addition to rock particles the soil containing [a] air and water [b] mineral salts, organic matter, air and water [c] water and plants [d] water , air and plants
2. Anything that surrounding and affects the life of an organism is called its [a] biosphere [b] environment [c] lithosphere [d] habitat
3. In ecology, a community refers to [a] a number of individuals of a given species [b] groups of different organisms living in a habitat [c] existing species in an abandoned farmland [d] the dominant species in the habitat
4. The complex relationship between the members of a community and their physical environment is known as [a] commensalism [b] symbiosis [c] saprophytism [d] ecology
5. The solid part of the ecosystem is referred to as [a] atmosphere [b] hydrosphere [c] biosphere [d] lithosphere
6. The most important abiotic factors  which affect plants and animals in the habitat are [a] temperature and rainfall [b] temperature and turbidity [c] salinity and relative humidity [d] rainfall and relative humility
7. What is the primary source of energy in all  ecosystems? [a] buld [b] tube light [c] candle light [d] sunlight
8.  A process by which organisms synthesizes their own food from simple in organic substance is called  [a] autotrophy [b] heterotrophy [c] decomposition [d] scavenging
9. Green plants are the examples of  [a] chemoautotroph [b] photo gototrops [c] saprotrophs [d] none of these
10. Snail , mosquito larva, and tadpole are the example of  [a] primary consumers [b] secondary consumers [c] tertiary consumers [d] decomposers
11. Which of the following forms of energy is utilized during photosynthesis? [a] potential [b] kinetic [c] solar [d] chemical
12. Which of the following organisms feed directly on green plants? [a] primary consumers [b] secondary consumers [c] producers [d] decomposer
13. Plants that have special devices for trapping and digesting insects are [a] carnivorous [b] symbiotic [c] parasitic [d] saprophytic
14. Which of the following is a primary consumer In parasitism [a] dog [b] sheep [c] grass [d] sunlight
15. In parasitism [a] one organism is benefited [b] both the organism are benefited [c] one organism is benefited , other is unaffected [d] one organism is benefited , other is affected
16. Which of the following relationships does not involve two organisms  [a] commensalism [b] saprophytism [c] symbiosis  [d] parasitism
17. Temperature, are light, and humility are examples of [a] Edaphic factors [b] biotic factors [c] biotic and abiotic factors
18. In an agricultural ecosystem, the biotic component consist of [a] crop , pests and beneficial  insects [b] crops , temperature and humility [c] pest, beneficial insects and water [d] crops, water and soil
19. The abiotic factors that control human population include [a] disease and famine [b] space and rainfall [c] flooding and earthquake [d] temperature and disease
20. Air pollution is caused by [a] insecticides [b] sewage [c] smoke [d] sound of loudspeaker                                                    

Section B:

Answer any 4 questions

1a.  What is pollution?

       b. State four pollutants of water

      2a.  Define the term adaptation

       Write short note on

1.  Structural adaptation
2.  Behavioural Adaptation
3. Xerophytes
4. Hydrophytes

3a. Define the term Ecology

        b. Write explanatory notes on these

        i. Habitat

        ii. Biome

        iii. Biosphere

vi. Mortality (death rate)

4a. Define

1. Producer
2. Consumer

b. Write short note on

i. Autotrophy

ii. Heterotrophy

iii. Decomposers

5a. Define energy transformation

b.   State the first and second law of thermodynamics   

English Language SS1 Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^nd Term Examination

Subject: English Language

Class:  SS1

Section A: Answer all questions

Objective

From the words or group of words lettered A-D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentence

1.  He was charged with complicity ____the abortive coup [a] in [b] for [c] about [d] on
2. He was convicted ____stealing some bags of cocoa [a] with [b] in [c] of [d] for
3. Many said she was acting ____the structure of the principal [a] by [b] on [c] for [d] through
4. _____normal circumstances, it is rare to get all registered voters to vote [a] on [b] by [c] in [d] under
5. Tunde has been trying hard to live ____ to his parent’s expectation [a] over [b] on [c] through [d] up
6. The minister’s daughter boasted she would have her way, and she really [a] had [b] has [c] have [d] did
7. As at yesterday , only nomination papers in respect of three candidates ____[a] have been filed [b] are being filled [c] had been filled [d] has been filed
8. They embraced passionately as if they ____seen each other for years [a] had [b] had not [c] have [d] have not
9. You are not sure when you placed the book [a] isn’t it [b] weren’t you [c] are you [d] didn’t you
10. We arrived when the hall ____arranged , so we stood outside [a]  has been [b] is being [c] was being [d] had been
11. She doesn’t know you like your food hot, ____[a] does she [b] shouldn’t she [c] didn’t she [d] wasn’t it

For each question, choose the most suitable to fill the numbered gap in the passage

For the working woman, the task of looking after the home and 12 up the children is not easy. Although the house may have every modern 13 , there is still much 14 to keep her 15 cooking, cleaning  , mending, washing and ironing , if she is lucky to have a 16 help, her task is made somehow easier

       The working woman spends much of her income on beauty cane , she buys a lot of 17 and visits the 18 regularly , most women  are 30 occupied with the daily 19 that the need these things to 20 themselves up     

12. [a] taking [b] pulling [c] getting [d] pushing [e] bringing

13. [a] convenience [b] necessity [c] assistance  [d] convention [e] auxiliary

14. [a] thing [b] engagement [c] work [d] labour [e] employment

15. [a] tied [b] busy [c] avert [d] ready [e] serious

16. [a] willing  [b] fractional [c] matrimonial [d] residential [e] domestic

17. Decorations  [b] continents [c] ornament [d] cosmetics [e] trinkets

18. [a] saloon [b] shop [c] store [d] salon [e] studio

19. [a] events [b] chores [c] needs [d] requirement [e] demands

20. [a] smile [b] encourage [c] cheer [d] laugh [e] relax

From the words lettered A-E below each of the following sentences , choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word

21. By nature armed robbers are ruthless  I have never seen a ____one among them [a] humane [b] barbarous  [c] ferocious [d] mean [e] decent

22. The taxi driver slowed  while overtaking the lorry when the proper thing to do was for him to have ____[a] throttle [b] dispatched [c] expedited [d] negotiated [e] accelerated

SS1: THEORY  

Answer all questions

Numbers one is compulsory

1.  Write a letter to the school director complain  to her about lack of social amenities in the school        
2. Write argumentative essay on the topic: doctors are better than teachers
3. Give another word or phrase to the words below:

1. Pungent
2. Irritating
3. Pleasant
4. Fetid
5. Balmy
6. Putrid
7. Aroma
8. Comprehension
9. Accuracy
10. Foundation

SS1 Government Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^nd Term Examination

Subject: Government 

Class:  SS1

1.  Anybody who have the legal in a country is said to be a ____[a] dual [b] star [c] citizen [d] police
2. Authority established by the state  to organize the state manage its affairs is ____[a] government [b] democracy society [c] society [d] legislature
3. Characteristics of government are ____[a] political power [b] revenue [c] welfare service [d] all of the above
4. Two major types of democracy are _____ [a] direct and indirect [b] major and minor [c] select and unselect [d] vote and unvote
5. A person who is importance and useful is said to have ____[a] pretender [b] honest [c] citizen [d] value
6. Whose constitution divided Nigeria as a colonized country into three main regions is ____ [a] Sir Clifford [b] Lord Lugard  [c] Authur Richard [d]  Donald Lugard
7. Which of these is not a type of constitution [a] written [b] unwritten [c] rigid [d] typed
8. All of these are features of rule of law except [a] equality before the law [b] impartiality [c] obedience [d] insolvery
9. A constitution that cannot be easily amended is called ____[a] flexible [b]  rigid [c] written [d] unwritten
10. A legal right is refers as ____[a] teacher [b] obligation [c] rules and regulation [d] none of the above
11. The following are types of citizenship except _____ [a] citizenship  [b] by naturalization [c] traveling [d] by registration
12. A political right given to qualified adult citizens of a  given country is ____[a] democracy [b] franchise [c] constitution [d] all of the above
13. Two major types of franchise are ____[a] known and unknown  [a] direct and indirect [b] limited and unlimited [d] none of the above
14. A right to vote  and be used for is an example of ____[a] mass media [b] public opinion [c] franchise [d] al of the above
15. A set of rules that determines how elections and referendum are conducted is known as ____[a] suffrage  [b] election [c] electoral system [d] government
16. Rules and regulations promote ____[a] disorder [b] discipline [c] indiscipline [d] stealing
17. ______is the government at the grass-root level [a] federal government  [b] state government [c] local government [d] council government
18. The punishment for murder is ____[a] promotion [b] applause [c] commendation [d] death
19. The following are types of electoral system except one [a] single transferable vote [b] the list system [c] proportional representation [d] electorate    
20. The agency that is in charge of election in Nigeria is [a] NAFDAC [b] SGS [c] NYSC [d] INEC
21. Free and fair election are conducted by military men [a] true [b] false
22. Who amalgamated all the protectorate in 1914 [a] Mary Floral Shawn Lugard 2 [b] Sir Clifford [c] Lord Lugard [d] None of the above
23. Which of the following is not fundamental human right [a] right to vote [b] right to life [c] freedom movement [d] none of the above
24. Traffic  regulation control _____on city streets [a] movement of vehicle [b] movement pedestrians [c] a and b [d] none of the above
25. All these are example of traffic regulation except ____[a] obeying traffic officials [b] obeying traffic signs [c] avoidance of over speeding [d] all of the above
26. Liberty is the ability or willingness  to do something that does not effect other people’s freedom [a] yes [b] no [c] none of the above
27. A public operation is also known as ____[a] public enterprises [b] civil society [c] political instability [d] none of the above
28. The types or classes in which human rights can be group into are as follow except one [a] political right [b] economic rights [c] civil right [d] none of the above
29. The body responsible for execution of the policies and programs of the government is known as ____[a] drug abuse [b] political apathy [c] public service [d] political interference [d] un-seriousness
30. The effect of  drug abuse can be as follow except  [a] loss of job [b] broken home [c] for healing [d] mental disorder    

THEORY

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1.  What is presidential system of government
2. List and explain all the types or characteristics of government
3. Define the following

• The legislature
• The judiciary
• Executives  

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SS1 Literature Exam Questions 2nd Term

2^nd Term Examination

Subject: Literature -in-English

Class:  S.S.1

1. The words phrases sentences used in any  story to pass across the orders message is known as ____[a] mood [b] theme [c] diction [d] point of view
2. The character that works against the hero /heroine in any story is called ____[a] protagonist [b] minor character [c] antagonist [d] flat character
3. A practice where actors of a play are selected to play specific roles is called ____ [a] production [b] audition [c] projection [d] submission
4. The first eight lines of a sonnet is called ____[a] lyrical [b] energy [c] amative [d] postural
5. A poem that deals with shepherds or rural life is called ____[a] dirge [b] pastoral poem [c] ballad [d] couplet
6. Even ten thousand oceans cannot wash away my guilt” . the figure of speech used here is ____ [a] hyperbole [b] personification [c] assonance [d] metaphor
7. Acting without speech in drama is known as ___[a] miming [b] verse [c] soliloquy [d] conversation
8. Don’t we know that God exists? . This is an example of ___question [a] direct [b] indirect [c] rhetorical [d] yes or no
9. The old man kicked the bucket is an examples of ____ [a] irony [b] euphemism [c] hyperbole d[ metaphor
10. The people that gather to watch a play are called ____ [a] audience [b] spectators [c] students [d] congregation
11. Drama is written in ____ [a] acts and scenes [b] chapters [c] verses and like [d] acts and likes
12. A poetic device which exaggerate situations or objects is known as ____ [a] climax [b] flash back  [c] irony [d] hyperbole
13. One of genre of literature is ____[a] line [b] chapter [c] prose [d] fiction
14. She is an angel is an example of ____ [a] irony [b]  metaphor [c] simile [d] pun
15. The word used by writers are known as ____[a] speech [b] fiction [c] drama [d] diction

THEORY

1. What is literature?
2. List out the genres of literature

b. Explain them  

3. List out all the  figures of speech we have

4. Define four out of list

5. What are the functions of literature

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SS1 Literature Examination Questions Second Term

2nd Term Examination

Class: S.S.1  

Subject: Economics

Objective                         

1.  All these are types of capital except _____capital [a] fixed capital [b] budget capital [c] circulatory capital
2. ____is used to produce further wealth [a] income  [b] reserve [c] capital r
3. The reward for capital is ___[a] labour [b] profit [c] interest
4. The  breaking down of production process is called ____[a] specialization [b] labour [c] division of labour
5. _____is an aspect of specialization [a] production [b] distribution [c] division of labour
6. Which of these is not  a type of specialization  [a] specialization by age [b] specialization by sex [c] specialization by product
7. Increase in production is an advantage of division of labour [a] true [b] false
8. Specialization and division of labour creates employment opportunities [a] true [b] false
9. Labour can be skilled or ____ [a]  less skilled [b] real [c] unskilled 
10. A group of firm producing the same products under separate administrative and management is called _____[a] company [b] industry [c] firm industry
11. There are ____factors of production [a] four [b] six [c] three
12. Which of these is not a type of  business organisation [a] partnership [b] co-operative company [c] sole proprietorship
13. A  partnership business is formed by minimum  of ____people [a] three [b] four [c] two
14. A sole proprietor can get his capital from and of these sources except [a] personal savings  [b] loan and overdraft from banks [c] fraud
15. One of the problems of sole proprietorships ____ [a]  it is easy to establish [b] inadequate capital [c] easy to manage
16. Sole proprietor requires ____capital to start up the business [a] large [b] small [c] medium
17. Which of the following is not a type of partnership [a] limited partner [b] unlimited partner [c] general partner
18. Bridges the gap between the producers and the consumer [a] retailees [b] contractor [c] middlemen
19. Which of these is not a type of riddle men    [a] the  wholesaler [b] the final consumer [c] the retailer
20. Anything that is generally acceptable as a means of payment and settlement of debt is called ____[a] property [b] barter [c] money

Theory

 Answer three  questions

1a.     What is capital

b.       List and explain 2 types of capital

1c.     State 3 importance of capital

2a.     Define specialization

2b.     Write shot note on division of labour

2c.     List and explain 2 types of specialization

3a.     Enumerate 4 advantages of division of labour

3b.     List and explain 2 disadvantages of division of labour

3c.     Define form

4a.     List 5 business organizations

4b.     What is partnership

 4c.    State 4 characteristics of sole proprietorship

5a.     What is sole proprietorship

5b.     List 3 sources of capital for partnership

5c.     List 5 advantages of sole proprietorship

SS1 Account Examination Questions Second Term

2nd Term Examination

Class: S.S.1   

Subject: Account

Objectives                                   

1.  ____is the book for recording small disbursement [a]  cash book [b] ridge [c] petty cash book
2. ____helps to eliminate the risk of fraud  [a] cash book [b] journal [c] potter cask book
3. ____is the conventional system  for recording petty cash transactions [a] float [b] reimbursement [c] imprest system
4. ____is a book of original entry  [a] ledger [b] journal [c] cash book
5. ___ c an be used to correct errors [a] redger [b]  journal [c] cash book
6. There are ___classes of entries in journal  [a] two [b] three  [c] four
7. ____is a list that shows the debt and credit balance extracted from the ledgers [b] ledger [b] journal [c] trial balance
8. ______ helps in teaching the accuracy of the double entry [[a] journal [b] petty cash book [c] trial balance
9. _____ must be part on the debts side in trial  balance  [a] debt [b] credit [c] none of the above
10. All liabilities goes  to ___ side on the trial balance [a] debt [b] credit  [c] none of the above
11. ____is the book for recording debuted  particulars of well money received and  paid [a] ledger [b] cash book [c] journal
12. All these are types of cash book except  [a] double column cash book except  [a] double column cash  book [b] petty cash book [c] sole cash book
13. Money received  goes to the ____side of the cash book  [a] credit [b] debit [c] corner
14. Discount allowed and discount received is found in the ___ column cash book [a] single  [b] double [c] three
15. Goods bough are referred to as ____ in amount [a] sales [b] purchases [c] A and B
16. Discount allowed is given by a ____ to a ___ [a] seller , buyer [b] supplier , seller  [c] customer , supplier
17. The money used to commence business is called ____ [a] cash [b] capital  [c] asset
18. A person who prepares the petty cash book [c] petty cashier
19. ____helps to eliminate the risk of fraud [a] cash book [b] journal [c]  petty cash book
20. ____ can be used to correct   errors [a] redger  [b] cash book [c] journal      

Theory

Answer 3 questions , No 1 is compulsory

1.  Andrew limited operates a petty cash book on the imprest system with a cash float of N3000. The following transitions took place in June 1990

N

June 2        Envelopes                                          3000

June 3 Petro 1                                                         200

June 4 postage stamps                                            150

June 5 Petro 1                                                        250

June 7 office cleaning                                              50

June 9 stationary                                                       120

June 10 Michael Chucks –ledger account                500

June 12 detail                                                          200

June 13 Adio –ledger account                                  250

June 14 Office cleaning                                           120

June 15 traveling expenses                                      180

June 16 postage stamps                                           300

June 15 traveling expenses                                      180

June 16 postage stamps                                           300

June 17 stationary                                                    200

June 18 office cleaning                                             150

June 19 petrol                                                           120

June 21 reimbursement of the budget                                                  

June 24 traveling expense                                         180

June 25 petrol                                                           120

June 25 office cleaning                                             100

You are required to enter the transaction into the petty cash book under the following heading stationary, postage  transport & transiting office cleaning and ledger

2.  Write short note on the following

a. imprest system

b. Float

c. Discount allowed

d. Discount recovered 

3. Write up a few column cash book from the following details and balance off at the end of the month 1995.

Jan 1 – started business cash capital in cash N3000

Jan 2 – Paid rent by cash N70

Jan 3 – Received loan from public N500 by chique

Jan 5 –  we paid Olu by cheque N165

Jan  6- We paid general expenses in cash N300

Jan 9- we drew N1000 from cash till and paid it into the  bank account

Jan 10-cash sales paid directly into the bank

Jan 12 = banked cash N800

Jan 14 – bought good by cheque B130

Jan – commission received by cheque N501    

Jan 21 – bought , motor van by cheque N60

Jan-22- cash drawings by the proprietors, 21

Jan 24- we paid Biodun for goods bought N250, N150 in cash , N100 by cheque

Jan 26 – wages paid in cash N25

Jan 27 – bought stationeries paying by cash N75

Jan  28 – We drew N105 from bank for private use

Jan 30 – Rent received by cheque

Jan 31 – cash sales N1000

4, from the following details, prepare a balance sheet for pabdo and sons  Nig Hd.  for the year ended 31^st Dec. 1969

Capital                                                N20,000

Cash in hand                                      N1500

Furniture                                            5000

Drawings                                             1000

Net profit                                               5000

Debtors                                                  2000

Land and  building                               3000

Equipment                                             2500

Loan                                                       3000

Stock                                                      2000

Cash at bank                                         3000

Creditor                                               10,000                                                                                                               

SS1 Commerce Examination Questions Second Term

2nd Term Examination

Class: S.S.1   

Subject:  Commence

Objectives     

1.  All these are examples of small scale retailing except [a] mobile shops [b] hawking  [c] chin –chin stores
2. ____provides door to doo selling [a] mobile shops [c] small stores [c] hawking
3. ____trade involves buying and selling across the national boundary [a] home trade [b] foreign trade [c] invisible selling
4. _____are traders who display their wares along the streets, roads or outside the gate of schools compounds, offices  infronts and cities [a] merchants [a] retailers  [b] retailers [c] road side traders
5. Roadside traders sell verities of goods  [a] yes [b] no
6. All these are examples of large scale retailing except [a] super market [b] unit stores [c] mail over
7. ____ have identical store design indoor and stock display [a] unit store [b] made order [c] chain stores
8. ____operates self service system [a] unit store [b] department store [c] supermarket
9. The rate of pilfering is very high  in ____[a] discount houses [b] supermarket [c] multiple stores 
10. All these are functions the wholesaler performs to the manufactuer except [a] financing [b] warehousing [c] risk bearing  
11. All these are types of merchant wholesaler except [a] general wholesaler [b] thrift wholesaler  [c] specialist wholesaler
12. ___allows the customers to go round and select the products he wants without the help of shop assistants  [a] branding [b] self service [c] chain stores
13. Supermarket and  franchising are examples of large scale retailing  [a] true [b] false
14. _____sells similar range of product or line  of merchandize [a] super market [b] variety stores [c] chain stores
15. ____are found  on busy roads and junctions  [a] chain stores [b] discount houses [c] roadside trading
16. ____operates multiple outlet [a] franchising  [b] supermarket [c] multiple store
17. The supermarket sell many food and house hold items [a] true [b] false
18. Impulse buying is encouraged in supermarket  [a] true [b] false
19. Less personal attention is given to customers ____[a] discount houses [b] supermarket [d] departmental stores
20. Extra running costs are incurred for trolleys or baskets in supermarket [a] true [b] false

Theory

Answer 3 Questions

1a.       What is small scale retailing

2b.       List and explain 4 examples of small scale retailing

1c.       Who is a retailer?

2a.       List 4 characteristics of hawking

2b.       What  is hawking

2c.       Write short note on a multiple stores

3b.       Define branding

3c.       List 3 advantages and 2 disadvantages of branding

4a.       Write a brief note on self service

4b.       What is wholesaling ?

4c.       List 7 functions of the wholesaler performs to the manufacturer.     

SS1 Mathematics Examination Questions Second Term

2nd Term Examination

Class:  S.S.1 

Subject: Mathematics

Time:

Instruction: Answer all in this section

SECTION A: Objectives

1.  Find the value of x in the equation 2x -3 = 9 [a] 3 [b] 9 [c] 2 [d] 5
2. Simplify 2 ¹/₃ – 1 ¹/₃ of 1 ²/₅  [a] 3 ¼ [b] 7/15 [c] ⁹/₁₄ [d] 2 ⁷/₈
3. Which  of these statement is wrong about angles

[a] Angle on a straight line is 180⁰

Alternate angles are equal

Angles at a point is 180⁰

Corresponding angles are equal 

4. Which of the equations has its roots as -3 and 2 [a] x² –x +6 = 0 [b] x² + 2x -6 = 0 [c] x² – 3x -6 = 0 [d] x² + x -6 = 0

5. If the first term and common difference of an Ap are 4 and -3 respectively, what is the 6^th term of the series [a] -11 [b] -15 [c] -18 [d] -9

6. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:5 respectively. If the boys are 6 in number . How many are they in the class [a] 18 [b] 24 [c] 12 [d] 48

7. The bearing of a point A to point B is 56⁰. What is the bearing of point B to Point A [a] 192⁰ [b] 285⁰ [c] 236⁰ [d] 156⁰

8. What is the roots of the equation x² -16 = 0  [a] -3 and 3 [b] 5 and -5 [c] -2 and 2 [d] 4 and -4

Use this diagram to answer questions 9,10, and 11

9. What is the value of x⁰ [a] 60⁰ [b] 120⁰ [c] 90⁰ [d] 50⁰

10. Which of these statement is correct   

[a] Angle R⁰ is alternative to angle x²

[b] Angle x² is alternative to angle y⁰

[c] Angle R⁰ is alternative to angle x⁰

d] Angle x² is alternative to angle t²

11. What is the value of t⁰ [a] 50⁰ [b] 90⁰ [c] 120⁰ [d] 60⁰

Use these information for question 12,13,14

A bag contains 3 yellow balls, 2 blue balls, 4 white balls and 6 green balls 

12. What is the probability of getting a white ball from the bag  [a] 3/15 [b] 2/15 [c] 6/15 [d] 4/14

13. What is the probability of not getting a yellow ball [a] 4/5 [b] 3/5 [c] 6/5 [d] 2/5

14. What  is the probability of picking  a ball from the bag [a] 4 [b] 1 [c] 3 [] 2

15. If the hypotenuse of a right angle triangle is 12cm² and the opposite side of it [a] 13.2cm [b] 8.4cm²  [c] 10.9cm² [d] 11.4cm²

16. Find the 6^th form of a G.P whose first term and common ration are 3 and 2 respectively [a] 48 [b] 60 [c] 84 [d] 96

Use these information to answer question 17,18, and 19

Given set A (1,2,3,5,7,1

B. (0,1,2,4,5), © 2,0,1,3,5,6,)

17. Find AnBnc [a] (1,5) [b] 0,2) [c] (5,6) [d] 2,3)

18. Find Anc [a] (1,2,6) [b] 2,1,3,5, [c] (o,2,5, ) [d] 0,3,7)

19. Find An (Buc) [a] 2,1,2,4,6,) [b] 20,2,3,6) [c] 1,2,3,5) [d] 1,2,5,7)

20. Convert 0.00986 to 2 significant figure  [a] 0.00 [b] 0.0098 [c] 0.0106 [d] 0.010

SECTION B

Instruction: Answer question 1 and 2 and any other one

1.  Simplify 2 ½ + 2 ½ of 3 1/3 – 1 ½
2. Find the  roots of the equation 2×2 – 11x + 12 = 0

b. Solve for y in the equation

3y -4 = 5y +4

(3) Given set x = ½ 0, 1,3, 4, 6,8)

y = ½ 0, 1,2,5,8,9) , t = (0, 1,2,3,5,6)

1.  Present this set on a view diagram
2. Find x  n (yut)
3. Find (xvy) n (kut)

3. A basket contains 5  apples, 8 mangoes, 6 organs and 2 pears. If an item is picked at random. What is the probability of

1. Nut picking mangoes
2. Picking orange
3. Apple or peers