SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

Senior High School 3 Exam Ist term. Year 12/SS3 Examination Questions for first term all subjects objectives and theory answers-Edudelight Exam

Agricultural Science SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

AGRICULTURAL – SCIENCE

SECTION A

The deficiency symptom peculiar to Vitamin B in livestock is……… A)night blindness B)sterility C)loss of appetite D) delay in blood clotting.
Which of the following is not a symptom of Malnutrition in Livestock……… A) bloat B) night blindness C) milk Fever D) anaemia
When an animal is being fed on a ration that does not increase its value but keeps the animal in good health and constant weight, the animal is said to be on ……… ration A) production B) maintenance C) concentrate D) balanced.
Digestion of protein starts in the ___ A) stomach B) duodenum C) mouth D) small intestine
Which of the following classes of nutrient is used mainly for energy production in farm animals? A) Carbohydrates B) protein C) vitamins D) minerals
The following are extension methods except _____. A) mass method B) individual methodC) group method D) none of the above
Agricultural extension serves as ____ between research institute and farmers A) gap B) command centers C) bridge D) extension
Television, radio, posters, bulletin are ____ method of extension A) group B) mass C) media D) individual
Which of the following grouping of extension method provides feedback A) mass method and individual method B) personal method and mass method C) individual method and group method D) group method and mass method
Fish eggs which are salted and prepared for eating are called A) Shagreen B) Caviar C) Canivar D) Smoked egg.
Glues and fertilizers are produced by using _____ A) shells of oysters B) Fish bones C) Scales of fish D) Cod-liver oil.
___ contains pearls which are polished and worn as jewellery.A) Oysters B) Crocodile C) Turtle D) Lobsters.
The skin of sharks are dried and specially treated to produce very special leather called A) Shannon B) Shagreen C) Shagrey D) Shy green.
Processing entails the removal of ___ parts of the fish. A) edible B) inedible C) bone D) fish
Preservation prevents the following except ____A)spoilage B)injury C)processing D) loss.
The drying of fish over fire is known as ____ A)smoking B)salting C) freezing D) roasting
Which of this is the process of putting in tins with special oils and paste? A) smoking B) freezing C)canning D) icing.
Example of water habitat that can be caught without the use of equipment are ____ A) periwinkle B) turtle C) oyster D) clam.
A ___ is anything that attracts the fish into trap set for the fish A) bat B) bait C) food D) sweet.
Which of the following are the cheapest methods of preserving fish? a. salting and sun drying b. freezing and chilling c. salting and canning d. smoking and canning.
In ponds, fish is usually caught with the following except a. trawler b. cast net c. fish trap d. hook and line.
Which of the following is the reason for smoking fish? a. removing parasites b. preserving it c. increasing its flavour d. decreasing its flavour.
All the following are aims of animal improvement except A. Fast growth rate B. Egg size C. Susceptibility to disease D. High feed conversion
…is the process of picking or selecting from a mixed population, those animals with breeding value as parents. A. Introduction B. Selection C. Breeding D. Picking
The mating of unrelated individual animals within the same breed is called A. Out breeding B. In-breeding C. Line breeding D. Cross breeding
____ is the ability of individual animals to survive unfavourable environmental weather conditions and reproduce. A. Introduction B. Artificial selection C. Natural selection D. Selective selection.
Which of these is not a method of collecting semen? A)reseeding b)Artificial Vaginac)Massage method d)Electro-ejaculation e)Recovery of semen from the Vagina after service.
Financial assistance from the government to the farmer is usually in the following forms except (a) loan (b) credit (c) tax (d) subsidy.
The following are sources of agricultural credit except a) agricultural bank b) cooperative society c) commercial d) mortgage bank.
___ is the mechanism by which insurer provides financial compensation to the insured in an attempt to place the insured back to the position he was before the loss A. Premium B. Loan C. Indemnity D. Subsidy

THEORY

(45 MARKS)

1a. highlight 5 malnutritional diseases, causes, sysptoms and corrections (5 marks)

1b. What is the meaning of the following Maintenance ration

Production ration ii. Animal improvement iii. Agricultural insurance (5 marks)

2a. Mention 5 qualities of extension officer/worker (5 marks)

2b. Describe 4 method of fish harvesting (4 marks)

2c. Explain the types of selection (4 marks)

3a. State 4 aims of animal improvement (4 marks)

3b. State 4 method of collection of semen (4 marks)

3c. Explain the following

Agricultural finance (ii)Agricultural credit (iii)Animal improvement (iv) Selection (4marks)

4a. Give 2 reasons why agricultural insurance is important (2 MARKS)

4b. State 4 basic laws & regulations of fishery in Nigeria (4 marks)

Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C

2.D

3.B

4.C

5.A

6.D

7.C

8.C

9.C

10.C

11.B

12.A

13.B

14.B

15.C

16.A

17.C

18.A

19.B

20.A

21.A

22.C

23.C

24.B

25.A

26.C

27.A

28.C

29.D

30.C

Biology SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

BIOLOGY

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

The maintenance of a constant internal environment is referred to as (a) plasmolysis (b) diuresis (c) homeostasis. (d) glycolysis
All the organs below are homeostatic in function except (a) liver (b) kidney (c) food vacuole (d) skin
Which of the following is not a kidney disease? (a) edema (b) hepatisis (c) nephritis (d) kidney stones
Which of the following is not one of the effects of kidney diseases (a) absence of blood cells in urine (b) oedema (c) high blood pressure (d) excessive urination.
One of the following is not a function of kidney. (a) Removal of poisons (b) maintaining salt balance (c) excretion (d) it regulates water level.
The pigment in the malpighian layer responsible for skin colouration is known as (a) melanin (b) haemoglobin (c) haemoyanin (d) keratin
Which of the following specialized structures are stimulated by touch, pressure, pains heat and cold? (a) Receptor (b) synapse (c) cell bodies (d) muscle
The increase in width of the blood vessels in the mammalian skin at high temperature is known as (a) vasodilation (b) sweating (c) vasoconstriction (d) vasculation
Which of the following stimuli is not provided through the skin of mammals? (a) light (b) pressure (c) pain (d) touch
Which of the following parts of mammalian skin is directly involved in excretion? (a) Sebaceous gland (b) sweat gland (c) horny layer (d) blood capillaries
Which of the following statement is correct? Hormones are (a) secreted into the blood through ducts (b) secreted directly into the blood stream (c) inactive chemical substances in the blood stream (d) not important
The pituitary is called “master glands” because (a) it is located in the brain (b) its secretions are more numerous than any other glands. (c) it secretion controls other glands (d) it is used in mastering learning.
The condition known as cretinism is caused by the deficiency of (a) thyroxine (b) adrenaline (c) vitamin A (d) oxytocin.
Auxins are produced in the (a) apical region of roots and shoot (b) edges of leaves (c) epidermis of roots (d) epidermis of shoots.
All these are plant hormones except (a) thyroxine (b) auxins (c) abscisic acid (d) ethylene
The fore brain is made up of the following except (a) cerebellum (b) thalamus (c) hypothalamus (d) cerebrum
The part of the brain that controls the body homeostatic is the (a) thalamus (b) medulla oblongata (c) hypothalamus (d) cerebrum
The human brain consumes ____ of the body oxygen supply (a) 10% (b) 25% (c)50% (d) 75%
The shock absorber fluid filling up the spinal canal and the brain ventricle is ____ (a) intercellular fluid (b) cerebrospinal fluid (c) vertebraterial fluid (d) amniotic fluid
The band of fibres connecting the two halves of the cerebrum together is called____ (a) median fissure (b) pons varolii (c) corpus callosum (d) thalamus
The muscle and the gland together are referred to as ______ a) receptor b) effector c) neurone d) sensory cell
A neurone that transmits messages from the sense organ to the central nervous system is a) sensory neurone b) motor neurone c) relay neurone d) effector
Which of the following neurons has no myelin sheath a) afferent b) efferent c) relay d) motor
A point where one neurone connects with another is called a a) dendron b) myelin sheath c) synapse d) ganglion
Automatic responses to stimuli which do not involve higher centre of the brain are referred to as ———- actions a) voluntary b) reflex c) muscular d) nervous
Behavioural patterns acquired only through learning are referred to as a) reflex action b) conditioned reflex c) voluntary action d) learning
Transmission in hormonal coordination is through a) blood stream b) nerve fibre c) lymph d) neurone
Which arrangement shows the correct pathway of impulse transmission
Axon — cell body — dendrites — synaptic knob
Dendrites — synaptic knob — cell body — axon
Dendrites — cell body — axon — synaptic knob
Cell body — dendrites — synaptic knob —- axonAll these are true about seeing a distant object with the eye except (a) the ciliary muscles relax (b) the suspensory ligaments relax (c) the lens becomes elongated (d) the suspensory ligament contract.
Converging lens is used to correct the following eye defects except (a)myopia (b) hypermetropia (c)presbyopia (d) long sightedness
The following are parts of the inner ear except a) ampulla b) semi-circular canal c) cochlea d) ear ossicles
——– helps to equalize air pressure on either side of the ear drum. a) sacculus b) Eustachian tube c) ampulla d) endolymph
The following are concerned with hearing except a) organ of corti b) semi-circular canals c) cochlea d) acoustic nerve
Which part of the ear is responsible for the maintenance of balance a) cochlea b) perilymph c) semi-circular canal d) stapes
Which of the following is not a structural part of a typical neurone a) axon b) dendron c) cell body d) dendrite
Which of the following neurons has no myelin sheath a) afferent b) efferent c) relay d) motor
A point where one neurone connects with another is called a a) dendron b) myelin sheath c) synapse d) ganglion
____ Is a single cell formed as a result of the union of a ale gamete with a female gamete (a) gamete (b) hybrid (c) mutation
___ Is a change in the genetic makeup of an organism that resulting in a new characteristic that is inheritable (a) gamete (b) hybrid (c) mutation
___ Is an offspring from a cross between parents that are generically different parents that are generically different but of the same species (a) gamete (b) hybrid (c) mutation

Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.A

10.B 11.B 12.C 13.A 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.C

18.B 19.B 20.C 21.B 22.A 23.B 24.C 25.B

26.B 27.A 28.C 29.D 30.D 31.A 32.B 33.B

34.C 35.C 36.B 37.C 38.A 39.C 40.B

THEORY

What is homeostasis? State three physio-chemical conditions of the internal environment of an organism.
Discuss briefly the mechanism of homeostasis.
Kidney is both excretory and osmoregulatory in its function.” Explain
What is (a) Deamination (b) Detoxification
Describe jaundice, stating three causes of it.
List five dermal structures and state their functions
Define (a) vasodilation (b) vasoconstriction
Describe the role of the liver in digestion and osmoregulation
Describe the homeostasis functions of the skin
List four hormones secreted by the pituitary gland and their functions.
Describe how the pituitary act as the master gland
State six effects of adrenaline as an emergency hormones on body organs
Differentiate between cerebrum and medulla oblongata
State the functions of five structural parts of a typical neurone
Differentiate between instinctive and conditioned reflexes.
List five sensory receptors in the skin and their functions
State five causes of deafness
Define The following- gene, chromosomes, recessive, dominant, Mendel’s work In genetics

Catering Craft SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

S.S.S 3 (THREE)

CATERING CRAFT PRACTICES

OBJECTIVES

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 1 HR 45 MIN

Meal planning is referred to as (a) what to eat (b) how to eat (c) a means of planning healthy meals taking into consideration food groups shown in the food pyramid (d) a list containing the food and drinks available to be served.
The followings are the general principle for meal planning except (a) complexion (b) food in season (c) cooking method chosen (d) money available.
Making a cheap, nutritious meal that has all the classes of food nutrients are ——- for meal planning (a) laws (b) reasons (c) guidelines (d) advantages.
Food wastage can be controlled by (a) money available in the home (b) skill of the cook (c) reasons for cooking (d) meal planning.
Meal planning is —– to make (a) hard (b) time consuming (c) discouraging (d) all of the above.
A person who do not eat the flesh of animals or all the products derive it is called (a) vegetarian (b) hindus (c) traditionalist (d) religious worshippers.
Semi vegetarians are also called (a) lacto (b) strict (c) vegans (d) flexitarians.
—— eats milk and milk products and other foods form plant sources (a) semi vegetarian (b) lacto vegetarian (c) lacto vegetarian (d) lacto-ovo- vegetarian.
Vegans are called —— vegetarian (a) lacto (b) ovo (c) strict (d) semi ovo.
Fruitarians eat the following except (a) pulses and cereals (b) raw and dried fruits (c) honey (d) olive oil.
Adequate consumption of protein is required for (a) strong bone (b) blood formation (d) easy digestion (d) development.
Energy intake should be adequate but not in excess to avoid (a) loss of blood (b) loss of energy (c) over weight (d) all of the above.
Vitamin K is necessary for (a) good sight (b) strong bones (c) development of new tissues (d) blood formation.
A lactating mother is (a) carrying a foetus in her womb (b) breast feeding a child (c) has stop breast feeding her child (d) has no breast milk.
A weaned child is a baby who is —– (a) breast feeding (B) being introduced to other food (c) has no appetite (d) don’t like food.
——- is the stage when growth spurt is experience (a) adulthood (b) infant (c) adolescent (d) puberty.
——– are more susceptible to infections (a) infants (b) adult (c) mothers (d) all of the above.
Increased intake of iron, vitamins B12 and folic acid to enhance (a) growth (b) energy (c) blood formation (d) tissue formation.
The period that lies between childhood and the beginning of adulthood is called (a) childhood (b) puberty (c) adolescent (d) infancy
—— need a balanced diet prepared in an easily digestible form, served attractively and in small portions (a) adolescents (b) infants (c) girls (d) boys.
An invalid is somebody that is (a) healthy (b) recovering (c) strong (d) sick.
Foods rich in calcium, phosphorous, magnesium and vitamins D is needed by (a) an adolescent (b) the aged (c) an invalid (d) a convalescent.
Serve the food hot and in an attractive manner ,do not prepare the food to close to the person, allow for variety in the diet is a guideline for cooking for ——- (a) an adult (b) an infant (c) an invalid (d) an adolescent.
A manual worker requires more of—– (a) energy giving food (b) portentous food (c) calcium (d) roughages.
For a sedentary worker, the food should be (a) easily digestible (b) heavy (d) unattractive (d) oily.
An obese patient is someone who is overweight the overweight is usually due to the accumulations of excess —— (a) fat or adipose tissue (b) water (c) blood (d) money.
The reduction in the consumption of energy food which is to be accompanied by regular physical exercise to improve blood circulation and tighten the sagging muscles is required by a —— patient (a) diabetic (b) hypertensive (c) aged (d) obese.
——- should avoid the consumption of cholesterol rich foods and little or no salt in their diet (a) an adolescent (b) a hypertensive patient (c) a diabetic patient (d) an obese patient.
A diabetic patient is someone whose blood sugar level is abnormally high and consequently sugar appears in his or her urine due to the production of insufficient (a) blood (b) water (c) insulin (d)tissue.
Generous amount of legumes and leafy vegetables should be consumed a/an —— patient (a) obese (b) diabetic (c) obese (d) hypertensive.
A counter where alcoholic and non-alcoholic drinks are served and consumed is called ——A. kitchen (b) restaurant (c) bar (d) hotel.
Which among the following is NOT a factor to consider in planning a bar? (a) tank (b) layout (c) safety and hygiene (c) site of the bar.
A mixologist is. (a) a personnel who plays music in the hotel (b) a person who mixes and serve drinks in a bar (c) a per who serves food to guests (d) a person who carves meat.
Who collects the order and serve alcoholic beverages? (a) barman (b) waiter (c) receptionist (d) mixologist
Which personnel ensure that the bar is properly stocked? (a) barman (b) waiter (c) station waiter (d) chef
An equipment used in the bar for making ice cubes is called —— (a) beverage dispenser (b) bar cooler (c) ice cube maker (d) jigger.
A draining board is used for —– (a) keep glass wares (b) drain off water (c) clean cups (d) store drinks.
—– is used for making drinks that require puree (a) boast on shaker (b) bar liquidizer (c) swizzle stick (d) ice tong.
A bar equipment that has a flat muddling end for crushing sugar or mint is —– (a) drink mixer (b) bar spoon (c) cocktail shaker (d) hand shake.
Ice cubes are used in serving —- (a) foods (b) cocktail (c) shawarma (d) all of the above.
Berdmuida plan means? (a) An elegance service (b) The process of facilitating guest departure (c) Sales of reservation (d) Same as bed and breakfast plan.
Brunch means? (a) A room with double bed (b) combination of breakfast and lunch often accompanied by champagne (c) A bed rate on two adults (d) A lodging establishment that ha food and beverage service.
The process of facilitating the guest departure and settling the guest account I called? (a) Check in (b) Check out (c) Downgrade (d) Folio.
The department of the hotel that is responsible for accounting and management is called? a) Front office b) Housekeeping c) Back office d) Block.
Check in means————- a) The process of welcoming and greeting a guest b) The process of laying off the staff c) The process of collecting the key from the guest d) All of the above.
_____Is used to ascertain the amount suitable for an item /thing. A. food cost B expenses C. labour D. costing.
An advantage of costing is? A. it shows the analysis of data B. it shows the analysis of income and expenditure C. it shows the analysis of report D. all of the above.
The cost of material used in producing the food is called___. A. food cost B. labour C. wages D. all of the above
There are ___ elements of costing. A. 8 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
Food cost, labour cost, cost of fuel are examples of____ type of cost. A fixed cost B. variable cost C. total cost D. none of the above.
—– provides beverages not catered for by the kitchen, lader and pastry section. A, bar B. still room C. restaurant D. kitchen.
—- is used in storing milk, cream and butter. A. hot and cold beverages B. dish washer C. refrigerator D. shelves.
Which among the following is not a preserve served in the still room. A. chocolate B. tomato juice C. margarine D. cream.
Dry cracker, digestive and wafer biscuits are best served—- A. early morning B. for brunch C. at night D. supper.
The following are items found in the still room except A. refrigerator B. salamander C. large sink D. insecticide.
____ is a clear liqueur in which coconut/rum is used for flavor (a) Malibu (b) Comtreau (c) Wine (d) Bailey’s Irish cream
____ is a popular liqueur with coffee and honey or chocolate and cream colour (a) Malibu (b) Comtreau (c) Wine (d) Bailey’s Irish cream
____is a clear liqueur produced by using orange/brandy as flavour and spirit based (a) Malibu (b) Comtreau (c) Wine (d) Bailey’s Irish cream
___is an alcoholic beverage obtained from the fermentation of freshly gathered grapes (a) Malibu (b) Comtreau (c) Wine (d) Bailey’s Irish cream
_____is produced from white grape juice. It is usually fermented away from the skin. (a) red wine (b) white wine (c) rose wine

Catering Craft Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.A 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.B

10.A 11.A 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.B 16.D 17.A

18.C 19.C 20.B 21.D 22.B 23.A 24.A 25.A

26.A 27.D 28.B 29.C 30.D 31.C 32.A 33.B

34.A 35.A 36.C 37.B 38.D 39.C 40.B 41.D

42.B 43.B 44.A 45.A 46.D 47.D 48.A 49.C

50.B 51.B 52.C 53.B 54.B 55.D 56.A 57.D 58.B 59.C 60.B

THEORY

a. Mention five principles of meal planning.

b. Differentiate between meal planning, menu and menu card.

Write three advantages and disadvantages of meal planning.
Explain any two forms of vegetarians.
Plan a balance dinner for a strict vegetarian.
Define vegetarian
Mention and explain the forms of vegetarians
Mention the importance of meal planning.
Mention three menu sequences and explain them
Mention five types of soup.
Differentiate between a pregnant and a lactating mother.
Mention three important nutrients needed by a pregnant mother with reasons.
Who is an infant?
Mention five nutritional needs of an infant.
Who is an adolescent? Who is an invalid?
Plan a balanced meal for a convalescent.
Explain the following (i) obese (ii) hypertensive (iii) diabetics.
Define bar. State two types of bar and explain them.
List five responsibilities of a mixologist.
State six uses of a bar. Explain portion control.
Mention five factors affecting menu planning
List the factors influence meal planning.

Chemistry SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

CHEMISTRY

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

TIME: 1 HOUR 45 MINUTES

ANSWER All QUESTIONS CORRECTLY

Which of these compounds exhibits resonance ? (a) Ethanol (b) Ethane (c) Benzene (d) Ethyne.
The solubility of alkane in organic solvent is due to presence of its ___ (a) polar molecule (b) non-polar molecule (c) Low melting points (d) low freezing points.
Which of these is alkane member? (a) Ethene (b) Pecane (c )Propyn (d) Butane
The root in the organic compound below is:
- H HH
- H- C – C – C – H

H H OH.

(a ) Propane (b) Propan-1-ol (c ) Propanol (d) hydrogen

5. ____ is the existence of two or more organic compounds, (isomers) with the same molecular formula but different structures (a) compounds (b) isometric (c) isomerism

6. Isomers are compounds having the same molecular formula but different structural formula. (a) False (b) Maybe (c) True

7. ____ isomerism is the kind of isomerism which occurs due to the differences in the way by which the carbon atoms are arranged in the chain. (a) chain (b) functional (c) positional (d) Geometric

8. ____ is the kind of isomerism which occurs as a result of the difference in the way the functional group is positioned. (a) chain (b) functional (c) positional (d) Geometric

9. ______ is the kind of isomerism which due to the difference in functional group. (a) chain (b) functional (c) positional (d) Geometric

10. _____ is the existence of compound with the same molecular formula but different spatial structural formula. (a) chain (b) functional (c) positional (d) Geometric

11. The parent alphatic hydrocarbon with the longest carbon chain in a molecule is called____ (a) Suffix name (b) Root name (c) Prefix name

12. The principal functional group substituents on the longest carbon chain in a molecule is called____(a) Suffix name (b) Root name (c) Prefix name

13. The other substituents on the longest carbon chain which are not functional group is called____(a) Suffix name (b) Root name (c) Prefix name

14. ___ undergoes combustion/oxidation in air or in the presence of oxygen and produce carbon(iv)oxide and steam (a) Ethane (b) Butane (c) Propane

15. Ethene gas decolourizes bromine water to produce___(a) bromoethanol (b) hydrogen sulphate (c) chloride

16. In the reaction given below:

C₂H₅OH ^{Conc H}₂^SO₄ C₂ H₄Conc H₂SO₄is acting as -H₂O

A. oxidizing agent B reducing agent C. Dehydrating agent D. Drying agent.

17. One of the following is NOT a chemical property of ethane. (a) Polymerization (b) Substitutional (c) Hydration (d) Addition.

18. Polymerization of ethane to produce polythene (a) True (b)False (c) Maybe

19. Function of the empty bottle during the preparation of ethane gas is ___(a) to remove oxygen (b) to remove CO₂ ( c) to prevent sucking back of the gas (d) None of the above.

20. Additional reaction of hydrogen and ethene is known as ___(a) polymerization (b) additional (c) combustion (d) hydrogenation

21. Which type of reaction occurs when soap is formed from fats? (a) hydrolysis (b) polymerization (c) fermentation (d) substitution

22. What is produced when ethanol is boiled with an excess of acidified potassium dichromate(VI)?
(a) ethane (b) ethanoic acid (c) ethane (d) ethyl ethanoate

23. Which of the following is an ester? (a) pvc (b) soap (c) starch (d) terylene

24. Starch can be broken down into smaller molecules by heating with a dilute acid. What is this type of reaction called? a. cracking b. fermentation c. hydrolysis d. reduction

25. A margarine is described as ‘high in polyunsaturates’. What does this type of margarine contain? (a) long chain alkane molecules (b) many alkene molecules joined by addition polymerization

26. Vinegar is a solution of ethanoic acid made by the reaction of ethanol with air. Which gas in air takes part in this reaction? (a) carbon dioxide (b) nitrogen (c) oxygen (d) water vapour

27. All the following sample will undergo hydrolysis with dilute acid except (a) fructose (b) Sucrose (c) lactose (d) Maltose

28. Dehydration of carbohydrate by concentrated H 2 SO 4 will give (a) black residue of carbon (b)the components monosaccharides (c) sooth of coal (d) a yellow – brown known as caramel

29. Which polymer has the same type of linkage between its monomers as in a fat?
a. polyamide b. polyester c. protein d. starch

30. Nylon (a polyamide) and Terylene (a polyester) are both man-made fibres. Which type of reaction is used to produce both of these polymers?
a. addition b. condensation c. fermentation d. hydrolysis

31. Part of a polymer molecule has the following structure. -CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂–
From which substance is this polymer made? a. C₂H₄ b. C₂H₆ c. C₃H₆ d. C₃H₈

32. The number of naturally occurring α-amino acids is about a) 10 b) 50 c) 40 d) 20

33. The inter-particle forces between linear chains in Nylon-66 are___ a) H-bonds b) covalent bonds c) ionic bonds d) unpredictable.

34. ______ are the homologous series of unsaturated hydrocarbon with a general molecular formua CnH_2n-2. (a) Alkynes (b) Ethene (c) Brutane (d) Ethyne

35. ____ is the first member of the alkyne series. It has a molecular formula, C₂H₂(a) Alkynes (b) Ethene (c) Brutane (d) Ethyne

36. ____ is usually prepared in the laboratory by the action of cold water on calcium carbide (a) Alkynes (b) Ethene (c) Brutane (d) Ethyne

37. Which of the following is not a condensation polymer? (a) Glyptal (b) Nylon-66 (c) Dacron (d) PTFE.

38. The monomer of PVC is___________ (a) ethylene (b) tetrafluoroethylene (c) chloroethene (d) None of the above.

39. ______ is a colourless gas with a characteristic sweet smell when pure (a) Alkynes (b) Ethene (c) Brutane (d) Ethyne

40. Which of the following polymers is, a copolymer? a) Polypropylene b) Nylon-66 c) PVC d) Teflon

41. Which of the following polymers is a homopolymer? a) Bakelite b) Nylon-66 c) Terylene d) Neoprene.

42. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with a) ethanol b)formaldehyde c) vinyl chloride d) ethylene glycol.

43. Soft drinks and baby feeding bottles are generally made up of a) polyester b) polyurethane c) poly urea d) polyamide e) polystyrene.

44. Fats and oils are a) monoesters of glycerol b) diesters of glycerol c) triesters of glycerol d) diesters of glycol

45. Which of the following is an example of aldohexose? a) Ribose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Glucose.

46. Which disaccharide is present in milk? a) Maltose b) Galactose c) Sucrose d) Lactose.

47. Which of the following is a ketohexose ? a) Fructose b) Maltose c) Glucose d) Ribose.

48. The linkage that holds monosaccharide units together in a polysaccharide is called a) peptide linkage b) glycoside linkage c) ester linkage d) ionic linkage.

49. The impurities associated with’ the ore after mining are collectively called (a) flux (b) slag (c) minerals (d) gangue.

50. Which of the following metals can be extracted by smelting? (a) Aluminium (b) Magnesium (c) Iron (d) None of these.

51. In the froth-floatation process for benefication of the ores, the ore particles float because___(a) they are light (b) their surface is not easily wetted by water (c) they bear electrostatic charge (d) they are insoluble.

52. Synthetic rubber is produced from but-1,2-diene by (a) cracking (b) hydrogenation (c) Polymerization (d) Vulcanization

53. In the extraction of iron in the blast furnace, of the following is used to remove earthly impurity from the ore? A. Air b. Carbon (ii)oxide c. Coke d. Limestone e. Magnetite

54. Aluminium is extracted by (a) electrolysis of the purified ore (b) froth floatation of the smelted ore (c) reduction of the ore with coke in a furnace (d) roasting the ore in excess supply of air

55. Which oxide can be reduced to the metal using carbon? (a) calcium oxide (b) magnesium oxide (c). sodium oxide (d). zinc oxide

56. Most reactive metals are extracted from their ores through electrolysis except (a) Na (b) Al (c) Ca (d) Mg

57. Calcium reacts directly with nitrogen to form ___(a) Ca 3 N 2 (b) Ca 2 N 3 (c) Ca 3 N 2 (d) Ca 3 N

58. The great affinity of aluminium for oxygen at high temperatures is employed in the a.electrolytic process b. thermit process c. Haber process d. lead chamber process

59. The molecular formula of Sucrose is A. CH2O B. C6H12O6 C. C12H2O11 D. CH3COOH

60. Steel is an alloy of iron containing only (a) carbon (b) carbon and other elements depending on the strength desired. (c) Carbon and nickel (d) Carbon and chromium

Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.B

10.D 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.C 17.B

18.A 19.A 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.D 24.C 25.B

26.C 27.B 28.A 29.D 30.B 31.B 32.D 33.A

34.A 35.D 36.D 37.D 38.D 39.D 40.A 41.D

42.B 43.E 44.C 45.D 46.D 47.A 48.B 49.D

50.C 51.B 52.C 53.D 54.A 55.D 56.D 57.A 58.D 59.C 60.B

THEORY

1. Write briefly on the following:

a. Cracking

b. Isomerism

c. Homologous Series

d. Stereo Isomerism

e. Optical Isomerism.

2. Name the following compound

CH₂(OH)CH(OH)CH₂OH
C₂H₄CL₂

3a. Write four (4) physical properties of Ethene

3b. How would you prepare a jar of ethane gas in the laboratory?

3c. State four (4) uses of Ethene.

Civic Education SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

CIVIC – EDUCATION

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

TIME: 1 HOUR 45 MINUTES

ANSWER All QUESTIONS CORRECTLY

The form of government where people run the government or exercise political power through their elected representative is known as ________ (a) representative democracy (b) value democracy (c) rule of law (d) constitutional democracy
One of the following is a type of value (a) poverty (b) democracy (c) selflessness (d) selfishness
Which of the following is NOT a principle of the rule of law (a) equality before the law (b) supremacy of the law (c) principle of impartiality (d) principle of corruption
_______ is the state of truthfulness and straightforward in whatever we do (a) love (b) joy (c) honesty (d) contentment
One of the following is a good attribute of selflessness (a) honesty (b) time (c) discipline (d) courage
Which of the following is NOT a factor necessary for the operation of rule of law? (a) independence of the judiciary (b) freedom of the press (c) presence of unicameral legislature (d) the law must not be kept secret
One of the is a good attributes of honesty (a) force (b) hatred (c) fear (d) courage
Laws made by military government are called ____A. constitution B. decrees C. bye-laws
Which of the following is classified under political right of individuals? (a) right to fair and equal hearing (b) right to work and receive commensurate compensation (c) right to freedom from slavery and forced labour (d) right to just and favourable conditions of work
The Laws made by local government in Nigeria are called _____A. constitution B. decrees C. bye laws
Which of the following is NOT a limitation to human right? (a) wars (b) being detained by law (c) state of emergency (d) freedom of the press
The upper house of the National Assembly is called ___ A. House of Senate B. House of Representative C. House of Assembly
Which organ of government interprets the laws of the country? A. The executive B. The Legislature C. The Judiciary
The head of the executive in Nigeria is the A. President B. Vice President C. Senate President probability
One major importance of _______ is that it brings about hard work and commitment to one’s work (a) fear (b) pleasure (c) integrity (d) love
Which of the following is Not one of the causes of drug abuse? (a) doubt (b) psychological suppression (c) inspiration (d) political instability
Which of the following is NOT a feature of constitutional democracy? (a) popular sovereignty (b) one party system (c) majority rule (d) basic freedom
The ability to do what is right irrespective of pressure to do otherwise is known as _____ (a) moral courage (b) physical courage (c) spiritual courage (d) man courage
The activity that is performed by someone or group of people for the benefit of all is known as _________ (a) integrity (b) value (c) community service (d) democracy
Construction of sign posts indicating street names is an example of _______ (a) liberty (b) community service (c) popular participation (d) integrity
_______ is the inalienable natural rights and privileges enjoyed by the citizens of any given state which are usually outlined by the constitution of the state (a) public rights (b) human rights (c) private rights (d) fundamental rights
Some of these rights as outlined in Nigeria’s 1999 constitution are as follows except ______ (a) the right to life (b) the right to seek redress in court (c) right to dignity of human person (d) right to kill
The lackadaisical attitude of a citizen towards the political or other affairs of government of his or her state is called ______ (a) political obligations (b) political elections (c) apathy (d) political apathy
Which of the following is NOT an example of public co – operations (a) power holdings Company of Nigeria (PHCN) (b) Nigerian Airways (c) Nigerian Ports Authority (d) Nigerian Corrupt Authority
One of the following is a characteristics of democracy (a) press freedom (b) indirect access (c) direct access (d) people’s access
______ is a system where citizens choose their representative to rule on their behalf (a) mobilized democracy (b) abstract democracy (c) indirect democracy (d) direct democracy
The principle of the rule of law was propounded by ______ (a) Dicey Abraham Lincoln (b) Blanchard Lincoln (c) Abraham Lincoln (d) Lincoln Anthony
Nigeria was ruled by the British government from ______ until 1^st of October 1960 (a) 1918 (b) 1916 (c) 1912 (d) 1914
_______ is the state of attachment and consciousness of identity as well as the readiness to give all its takes to serve the nation (a) capitalism (b) democratism (c) nationalism (d) statism
The critical, analytical, synthesizing problem solving capacity is known as ______ (a) fundamental human rights (b) natural rights (c) civic rights (d) governing
__________ is the law that controls the relationship between the arms of government in the country (a) civil law (b) public law (c) international law (d) state law
_______ is usually referred to as the third sector of the society (a) civil society (b) society (c) civic moral
________ is the first Nigerian political party (a) NNDP (b) NCNC (c) SDP (d) AD
________ Is the type of legislature with two legislative houses (a) bicameral legislature (b) unicameral legislature (c) bicaciary legislature (d) the judiciary
_____ refers to privately organized groups formed for the purpose of promoting collectively shared interests, values and objectives (a) civil service (b) civil servant (c) civil societies (d) civil forces
_______ system of government is a political system in which power is shared between the central and regional government (a) monarchy (b) capitalism (c) federalism (d) sociology
_______ refers to the body of rules, principles, traditions, convention and laws under which a country is being governed (a) law book (b) constitution (c) rules (d) oligarchy
The three (3) arms of government are ______, ______ and ______ (a) the executive, the legislature and the judiciary (b) the legislature, the constitution and the executive (c) the judiciary, the executive and federal (d) the executive, the judiciary and the government
_______ arm of government is responsible for policy making and implementation (a) the judiciary (b) the legislature (c) the obligations (d) the executives
_______ is the government of the grass roots level where majority of the people live (a) civil service (b) local government (c) oligarchy (d) the local council
_____ is an organized group of people with a similar ideology working together with the aim of winning an election into political office (a) political service (b) political exercise (c) political parties (d) political government
The following are the problems of local government in Nigeria except _______ (a) embezzlement of public fund (b) shortage of funds (c) excessive control (d) reporting of criminals
Nigeria has many political parties among which are _______ (a) CAN, ADC, ANNPP, LP, PDP (b) PSA, ACA, PCP, UN, AD (c) AOC, ADC, ACC, PDA, LP (d) DPP, PDP, AC, CCP, AO
What is the full meaning of ANPP? (a) Africa National People’s Party (b) All Nigeria Party Politics (c) All National People’s Party (d) All Nigeria People’s Party
_______ is an enclosed organized association of people devoted to the same course (a) initiation cult (b) secret cult (c) secret place (d) learning place
_______ is the act of doing things in a peaceful orderly fashion (a) peace (b) integrity (c) orderliness (d) integration
The different forms of leadership established for the smooth running of a society is known as _________ (a) constituted authority (b) constituted government (c) constituted power (d) constituted police
The process of impacting on the citizens the acquisition of their rights, values and the development of total knowledge, skills and attitudes towards the affairs of their _______ (a) citizenship education (b) internal revenue service (c) institution (d) citizenship
There are ______ forms of democracy (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5
________ democracy is a system of government in which all citizens meet together periodically for the purpose of governing the country (a) indirect democracy (b) direct democracy (c) mobilized democracy (d) abstract
_______ is the supremacy of the law over every citizen in a political system (a) the rule of law (b) principle of impartiality (c) right to appeal (d) freedom of the press
_______ is the skills that we use to offset disadvantages to day to day life (a) integrity (b) virtue (c) selflessness (d) coping
The ability of a worker to handle an object with the appropriate control and speed of movement required by a task is known as _______ (a) life coping (b) manipulate skills (c) integrity (d) communication skills
________ destroys CD₄ cells (a) AIDS (b) HIV (c) coolquakos (d) unwanted pregnancy
Which of the following is NOT problem of public services___(a) tribalism (b) enjoyment (c) poor condition of service
________ is the feeling of not being interested in or not being enthusiastic about something or things in general (a) apathy (b) public opinions (c) political apathy (d) rallies
_________ is the act of showing lackadaisical attitude of a citizen towards the political affairs of a state like elections, census, rallies etc is called ______ (a) Public opinions (b) political apathy (c) public apathy (d) apathy
____is a service which is provided by government to people living within its jurisdiction, either directly (through the public sector) or by financing provision of services (a) public services (b) public servant (c) memory loss (d) weight gain
______ is one of the causes of political apathy (a) bad governance (b) election (c) citizens education (d) citizenship education
_______ is NOT one of the achievement of public services (a) formation of policy (b) policy execution (c) legislative function (d) attitude

Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.A

10.C 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.C 16.C 17.A

18.A 19.C 20.B 21.D 22.D 23.D 24.D 25.B

26.C 27.A 28.D 29.C 30.B 31.A 32.A 33.A

34.A 35.C 36.C 37.B 38.A 39.B 40.D 41.C

42.D 43.A 44.D 45.B 46.A 47.A 48.A 49.A

50.B 51.A 52.B 53.B 54.A 55.B 56.A 57.B 58.A 59.A 60.D

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

ANSWER 3 QUESTIONS:

What is Federalism?

b. State four (4) reasons for the adoption of federalism

c. List and explain four (4) problems of local government

Define Political apathy

ii. Define nationalism

3. Define capitalist democracy

b. Write short notes on the following:

i. Selflessness

ii. Contentment

iii. Justice

4. Define public service?

ii. List the characteristic of public service and explain any 3

5. Define Civil society

ii. List 5 qualities of civil society

iii. List 5 problems of civil society

SS3 Commerce Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

COMMERCE

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a contract? (a) offer and acceptance (b) intension to create legal relations (c) all contracts written out (d) legality of object
Patent right gives the owner the exclusive right to ______ (a) produce any type of goods (b) his intension (c) form a new business (d) sell to other manufacturer
Who is liable for the contracts entered into by the agent on behalf of his principal? The _____ (a) agent (b) principal (c) agent and the principal (d) third party
An agreement whereby the seller transfers the title to goods at a price is called ______ (a) a contract of sale (b) a hire – purchase agreement (c) an agency agreement (d) a contract of carriage of goods
A delcredere agent is distinguished from other agents in that he ______ (a) is a partner in a trading firm (b) works for his principal on commission basis (c) is a middleman in a transaction involving two or more people (d) usually guarantees payment in any transaction
Which of the following assigns a name to a product? (a) copy right (b) packaging (c) labeling (d) branding
Which of the following is not one of the 4 M’s of Business resources? (a) method (b) men (c) money (d) material
The act whereby a manager assigns some of his duties and powers to a subordinate is known as ______ (a) authority (b) assignment (c) decision makings (d) delegation
Which of the following is the basic function of a personnel department? (a) recruitment staff (b) organizing training for staff (c) settling disputes among trade unions (d) processing staff salaries and wages
The management techniques that anticipates the future and determines the appropriate line of action is known as __ (a) planning (b) organizing (c) consulting (d) directing
Span of control is the ___ (a) ability of the supervisor to control staff (b) qualification possessed by the supervisor (c) member of staff under the control of a supervisor (d) authority of the supervisor to control the staff
Which of the following is not a function of management? (a) staffing (b) planning (c) organizing (d) distributing
Which of the following is responsible for the welfare of staff in an organization? (a) accounts departments (b) administration department (c) personnel department (d) accounting
In which of the following environment does a firm that uses out – dated equipment operate? (a) economic (b) technological (c) social (d) political
Agents who link buyers with sellers receive ______ (a) factorage (b) brokerage (c) bonus (d) no idea
The art of achieving stated objectives of a business organization in a most human and material resources is ______ (a) planning (b) co – ordinating (c) motivation (d) management
Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract? (a) offer (b) acceptance (c) legality (d) compensation
Del – credere commission is an _____ (a) allowance paid to a supplier (b) extra allowance paid to guaranteeing recovery of debts (c) Allowance paid to all commission agents (d) allowance paid by the agent
A structure of direct vertical relationship connecting the positions at each level in an organization is called _______ (a) staff organization (b) lateral organization (c) line organization (d) functional organization
The process of transferring decision making to lower levels of the organization hierarchy is called _______ (a) span of control (b) delegation of authority (c) management by objectives (d) centralization of authority
The process of establishing objectives for the organization and determining the best ways to achieve them is management function of ______ (a) communicating (b) organizing (c) planning (d) departmentalization
The number of subordinates that one person can supervise efficiently in an organization is referred to as _______ (a) unity of command (b) chain of command (c) organization hierarchy (d) span of control
Measuring performance against the act objectives in an organization is a management function that relates to ________ (a) staffing (b) planning (c) controlling (d) organizing
When a company contributes to the welfare of the immediate community, it is performing a ________ (a) political responsibility (b) economic responsibility (c) social responsibility (d) legal responsibility
Which of these management functions involves checking performance against set standards? (a) controlling (b) co – ordinating (c) planning (d) directing
The department that deals with internal grievances and maintenance of discipline in an organization is the _______ (a) accounts (b) maintenance (c) personal (d) public relations
Management is ______ (a) getting things done through other people (b) the implementation of business decision (c) the number of levels in an organization (d) make-up of the general manager and the employees
An agent who guarantees payments for goods sold _______ (a) a factor (b) a del credere agent (c) a broker (d) a partner
Who among the following is not an agent? (a) broker (b) factor (c) jobber (d) manufacturer’s representative
In which of the following do the goods become the property of the buyer on the payment of first installments? (a) hire purchase (b) deferred payment (c) leasehold (d) cash with other
An agent who takes possession of goods and sells in his own name but does not guarantee payment is known as _______ (a) del – credere agent (b) general agent (c) broker (d) factor
The art of combining human, material and other resources to achieve the stated goals of a business is known as _______ (a) planning (b) controlling (c) directing (d) organizing
An agent with authority to bind his principal in everything provided he acts lawfully is called ________ (a) a del credere agent (b) a special agent (c) a universal agent (d) a factor
Which of the following is NOT a feature of hire purchase? (a) customer pays initial deposit (b) customer pays purchase price plus interest (c) payment is by installment (d) ownership of goods passes to the customer on payment of a deposit

Use the information to answer questions 35 – 36

Ola presented his motor – cycle for sale to Musa at a cost of N 8000. Musa agreed and bought the vehicle at the same amount.

35. The N 8000 for the sale is _______ (a) an offer (b) an acceptance (c) a consideration (d) a warranty

36. Ola is the _______ (a) offerer (b) offeree (c) acceptor (d) guarantor

37. When an acceptance to an offer is conditional, the offer becomes _______ (a) accepted (b) a counter – offer (c) valid (d) void

38. A merchantile agent having title to goods in his possession is known as _______ (a) factor (b) broker (c) jobber (d) auctioneer

39. A contract to take possession of goods on installmental payment with the option to transfer ownership after full payment is known as _______ (a) credit sale (b) conditional sale (c) trade – in sale

40. The setting of objectives and determination of the best way to achieve them are known as _______ (a) co – ordinating (b) planning (c) controlling (d) organizing

41. _______ are system of rules, which govern business transactions. These are aspects, which deal with the operations of business activities (a) Business written (b) posted business (c) delivered (d) business law

42. Which of the following is NOT a business resources? (a) market (b) man (c) money (d) machine

43. In a law of contract a counter offer operates as _______ (a) an acceptance (b) consensus ad idem (c) a rejection (d) a contract

44. An agreement that is enforceable in law is _______ (a) a contract (b) an offer (c) an acceptance (d) a consideration

45. Which of the following person is a part of a business internal environment? ______ (a) employee (b) supplier (c) creditor (d) customer

46. The various branches of commercial law are as follows except ______ (a) Agency (b) Law of employment (c) offer and acceptance (d) pledge

47. An agreement between two parties which can be enforced is _______ (a) a warranty (b) an offer (c) consideration (d) a contract

48. The process of placing the right people in the right position in an organization is ______ (a) planning (b) motivating (c) staffing (d) direction

49. Which of the following is a basic requirement for a valid contract? (a) representation (b) consideration (c) interest (d) performance

50. The law by which the seller transfers the property in goods to the buyer at an agreed price is the _______ (a) Hire Purchase Act (b) Trade Description Act (c) Foods and Drugs Act (d) Sale of Goods Act

51. The party that has suffered loss has the right to sue for_____(a) recession (b) consideration (c) Damages (d) justice

52. The parties can ask to be restored to their pre-contractual position in the law court is________(a) recession (b) consideration (c) Damages (d) justice

53. ______ is when the injured party sues to re-enforce the contract. (a) recession (b) consideration (c) Damages (d) justice

54. An agent is a person who is employed to act on behalf of another person called the______(a) recession (b) principal (c) Damages (d) justice

55. ______ happens when one person approves an act preciously done by another in the former’s name without authority. (a) recession (b) principal (c) Ratification (d) Estopel

56. ________ is an agency which arises when a person by word or conduct leads another person to believe that a third party is his agent or has the authority to execute particular acts. (a) recession (b) principal (c) Ratification (d) Estopel

57. _____ are commercial agents who link their principals with potential buyers. They just search for potential buyers and link them up with their principals. (a) Universal Agent (b) Jobber (c) Brokers (d) Estopel

58. _________ type of agent buys from his principal and sells on his own behalf rather than on behalf of his principal. (a) Universal Agent (b) Jobber (c) Brokers (d) Estopel

59. ______ is not restricted to any line of goods but is authorized by his principal to enter into all sorts of business transactions on the principal’s behalf. (a) Universal Agent (b) Jobber (c) Brokers (d) Estopel

60. ______ is a credit agreement in which the customer is allowed to take possession and ownership of the goods upon the payment of the initial deposit. (a) Deferred bus Agent (b) Deferred payment (c) Brokers (d) Hire purchases

Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.D 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.A

10.D 11.D 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.D

18.C 19.D 20.B 21.C 22.D 23.D 24.B 25.B

26.D 27.A 28.A 29.C 30.B 31.C 32.B 33.A

34.A 35.A 36.C 37.A 38.C 39.C 40.D 41.D

42.B 43.B 44.A 45.B 46.C 47.D 48.A 49.B

50.D 51.C 52.A 53.D 54.B 55.C 56.D 57.C 58.B 59.A 60.B

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

Define Business law

bi. What are the branches of commercial law

ii. Explain three (3) out of the one mentioned above

What is a Contract?

b. What are the essential elements of valid contract (Explain 5)

c. List three (3) types of contract and explain

What is an agency?

b. Briefly explain five (5) types of agent

c. What are the factors that can be bring agency to an end? Explain five (5)

Senior High School 3 Exam Ist term. Year 12/SS3 Examination Questions for first term all subjects objectives and theory answers-Edudelight Exam

SS3 CRS Examination Questions For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

When John the Baptist started his baptism, Jesus was in ______ (a) Cana (b) Capernaum (c) Bethsaida (d) Nazareth
Jesus was baptized at the ______ (a) Jordan river (b) Nile river (c) sea of Galilee (d) dead sea
Which gospel says precisely where Jesus came from to meet John the Baptist for baptism? (a) Luke (b) Matthew (c) MARK (D) John
John agreed to baptized Jesus so that the two of them might meet the requirement of the _____ (a) prophets (b) psalms (c) holy spirit (d) law
According to Matthew, who saw the holy spirit descending on Jesus when Jesus was being baptized? (a) John himself (b) Jesus himself (c) Jesus and John (d) John and other people
Which gospel makes an attempt to explain why Jesus was baptized? (a) John (b) Luke (c) Mark (d) Matthew
Jesus’ baptism was an act of ______ (a) dedication for his future work (b) identification with humanity (c) personal humility (d) approval of John’s work
What happened during the baptism of Jesus? (a) the angels sang sweet hymns (b) the spirit of God stood by him (c) there was a voice from heaven (d) three miracles happened
The appearance of the dove during the baptism of Jesus signifies ______ (a) the presence of God (b) the messiahship of Jesus (c) the presence of an agel (d) the presence of the holy spirit
Where was Jesus led to by the spirit immediately after his baptism by John? (a) Jerusalem (b) temple (c) desert (d) mountain
How many days and nights did Jesus fast before he was tempted by the devil? (a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 10
In the first temptation, Jesus told the devil _______ (a) you must not tempt the lord your God (b) only God must be worshipped (c) man must not live by bread alone (d) get away Satan
Which gospel does not record the temptation of Jesus? (a) Luke (b) John (c) Matthew (d) Mark
Where in the temple did Satan take Jesus to when he was tempting him? (a) the court of the gentiles (b) the court of the priest (c) the holy place (d) the pinnacles
Where was Jesus taken to in the third temptation? (a) a high mountain (b) Jerusalem (c) a desert (d) a plain
Which of the following was not one of the first four disciples according to LUKE? (A) Thomas (b) Peter (c) Andrew (d) James and John
Which of the following disciples was not a known fisherman? (a) James (b) Philip (c) John (d) Andrew
Which disciples was also called Levi? (a) Thomas (b) Bartholomew (c) Matthew (d)Simon the zealot
Zebedee was the father of ______ (a) James and John (b) Peter and Andrew (c) Philip and Nathaniel (d) Matthew and Thomas
Which of the disciples was a known tax – collector? (a) Bartholomew (b) Thomas (c) Philip (d) Matthew
“Those who are well have no need of a physician but those who are Sick” This was Jesus reply to those who were criticizing him for ______ (a) healing on the Sabbath day (b) teaching in parables (c) eating with the tax – collector (d) turning water into wine
“Foxes have holes, and birds of the air have nests; but the son of man have nowhere to lay his head” This was Jesus reply to ______ (a) the Samaritan woman (b) a man who said he would follow him (c) the centurion whose slave was ill (d) the syro – Phoenician woman
What was Jesus reply to a would – be disciple who requested for a time to say farewell to his relations? (a) one who put his hand on the plough should not look back (b) one could not serve two masters (c) “leave the dead to bury their dead” (d) the son of man had no home
How did Jesus reply a would – be disciple who requested for a time to go and bury his father? (a) let his brothers bury him (b) let your brother bury him (c) let his servant bury him (d) let the dead bury the dead
With what did Jesus illustrate the factors that militate against discipleship? (a) a man building a tower (b) a man going for a journey (c) a farmer surveying his land (d) a teacher teaching his pupils
Which towns did Jesus mention that their fate would be better on the judgment day than that of those who rejected the message of the twelve? (a) Sodom and Gomorrah (b) Ai and Jericho (c) Samaria and Jerusalem (d) Nazareth and Bethlehem
In the mission of the seventy the disciples were sent out in _______ (a) twos (b) fives (c) sevens (d) tens
Jesus told the seventy disciples he was sending them out as a lamb in the midst of _____ (a) leopards (b) wolves (c) tigers (d) lion
Which of the following three groups giving instructions to the disciples on the mission of the seventy? (a) Caesarea, Magadan, Nain (B) Bethlehem, Bethany, Bethphage (c) Bethsaida, Capernaum, Chorazin (d) Jerusalem, Jericho, Joppa
What was the significance of the seventy in the mission of the disciples? (a) they were divided into seven groups of ten each (b) the Septuagint was translated by seventy scholars (c) the Septuagint was translated in seventy days (d) seventy elders assisted Moses
The arrest of JESUS by his enemies was ______ (a) an accident of fate (b) as a result of his stubbornness (c) a fulfillment of the scripture (d) to force him to perform a miracle
Jesus discouraged the twelve during their mission, from going with the aim of making profit because ______ (a) money is the root of all evil (b) they received God’s grace freely (c) their success depended on fasting (d) they would sacrifice the service for self – indulgence
The trail of Jesus of Jesus was transformed from the high priest’s court to Pilate because (a) Jesus lodged an appeal to the higher court (b) the high priest had no power to impose the death penalty (c) it gave the high priest the opportunity to reconcile with the governor (d) the governor sent troops to stop the trial as a riot was threatening
With how many disciples did JESUS go with to Gethsemane? (a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 5
How many disciples did JESUS take him at Gethsemane when he moved forward to pray? (a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 3
Which of the following was one of the disciples Jesus took with at Gethsemane when he moved forward to pray? (a) Philip (b) Andrew (c) Thomas (d) James
At Gethsemane JESUS prayed to God to _____ (a) give him his daily bread (b) lead him not into temptation (c) deliver him from evil (d) give more power to perform more miracles
When JESUS was being arrested at Gethsemane the ear of whose slave was cut off? (a) the centurion’s (b) the high priest’s (c) the chief priest’s (d) Pilates
How many legions of angel did Jesus say God would have sent to him if he wanted fighters? (a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 8
When JESUS had been arrested which of his disciples followed him at distance as far as the courtyard of the high priest? (a) Peter (b) James (c) John (D) Andrew
Which gospel states that JESUS touched the ear of the slave that was cut off and it was healed? (a) Matthew (b) Mark (c) Luke (d) John
As soon as Pilate handed Jesus to the Jews to be crucified, the soldiers led Jesus into the _____ (a) synagogue (b) temple (c) Calvary (d) Praetorium
Which of the following was not one of the phrases with which the soldiers mocked Jesus? (a) clothing him in a purple cloak (b) placing a crown of thorns on his head (c) hailing him as king of the Jews (d) calling him Rabbi jeeringly
Who was forced to carry the cross of Jesus? (a) Simon of Cyrene (b) Alexander of Cyrene (c) Rufus of Cyrene (d) Justus of Cyrene
Jesus was crucified at _______ (a) Harmon (b) Golgotha (c) Tabor (d) Gerizim
When Jesus was crucified there was darkness throughout the land from ____ to ______ (a) 12 noon – 3 p.m (b) 9 a.m – 12 noon (c) 10 a.m – 1 p.m (d) 2 p.m – 4 a.m
What happened in the temple exactly at the time Jesus died? (a) earthquake (b) the curtain was torn in two (c) there was thick cloud in the holy of holies (d) there was a dazzling light in the holy place
After the resurrection, the early church met to ______ (a) determine how to deal with the Sanhedrin (b) plan the expansion of the church (c) appoint a replacement for Judas Iscariot (d) determine the inclusion of the gentiles in the church
Who was elected to fill the vacancy created by the death of Judas Iscariot (a) Jude (b) Matthias (c) Justus (d) Barnabas
Judas Iscariot used the money he received for selling Jesus to buy a piece of land called “Field of Blood” This is known in the language of the inhabitants of Jerusalem as ______ (a) diatessa (b) Gnosisma (c) Kerigma (d) Akeldama
“After the Pentecost those of the disciples who owned houses and other valuables good sold them and used the money realized from the sale for the needs of all. “This was among them an expression of spirit of ______ (a) love (b) oneness (c) neighborhood (d) hospitality
An example of man who sold his land and brought the money to the apostles was ______ (a) Barnabas (b) Stephen (c) Philip (d) Gamaliel
Which of the following names was given by the apostles to one of the disciples meaning “Son of encouragement” (a) Bartimaeus (b) Barnabas (c) Bartholomew (d) Barabbas
Which of the following is TRUE of the communism of the early church? (a) it spread throughout Judea (b) it was compulsory (c) it was spontaneous (d) the apostles alone planned it
Which of the following featured in the problem of hypocrisy in the early church? (a) Theudas (b) Judas the Galilean (c) Judas Iscariot (d) Ananias
Which of the following featured in the problem of nepotism in the early church? (a) the Parthian and the Medes (b) the Elamites and the Cappadocians (c) the Judeans and the Galileans (d) the Hellenists and the Hebrews
How many persons were appointed to handle equitable distribution of food in the early church? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 12
Which of the following was not a deacon? (a) Prochorus (b) Nicanor (c) Agabus (d) Timon
Which of the following women aided and abetted her husband in telling a lie to the apostles (a) Bernice (b) Lydia (c) Pricilla (d) Sapphira
Which of the following problems in the early church was resolved by the appointment of the first deacons? (a) nepotism (b) sorcery (c) disunity (d) impurity

Objectives = 30 marks

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS:

What is Baptism? (1 mark)

b. Briefly explain the baptism of Jesus according to Matthew (5 mark)

Define Temptation (1 mark)

b. Briefly explain the temptation of Jesus ( 5mark)

c. Explain the purpose or significance of his temptation ( 5marks)

Who is a disciple? ( 1 mark)

b. Briefly explain the importance of the call of disciples to Jesus ministry ( 3 mark)

c. Describe the mission of the twelve and seventy according to Mark and Luke respectively ( 10 marks)

CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A

10.C 11.A 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.A 16.A 17.B

18.C 19.A 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.A 24.D 25.D

26.A 27.C 28.C 29.C 30.A 31.C 32.B 33.B

34.D 35.D 36.D 37.C 38.- 39.B 40.A 41.A

42.C 43.A 44.A 45.B 46.A 47.B 48.B 49.B

50.D 51.A 52.B 53.B 54.A 55.C 56.C 57.B

58.C 59.D 60.C

SS3 Data Processing Examination Questions For First Term

SSS 3 DATA PROCESSING

1^ST TERM EXAMINATION

OBJECTIVES

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 1 HR 45 MIN

The basic raw facts and figures are referred to as……. (a)information (b) data (c)report (d) history
The basic raw facts and figures that had been processed are referred to as……. (a)information (b) data (c)report (d) history
________ is the computer memory. a. Speaker b. Motherboard c. RAM (d) mouse
A roof covers a building describes …………relationship (a) one-to-one (b) one-to-many (c) many-to-many(d) none of the above
Maintenance is necessary on computer to avoid ………. a) hardware failure b) stealing c) invasion d) crime
Excess heat accelerates the deterioration of the delicate ……… in the system. a) vacuum b) transistors c) circuits d) particles
Dust and dirt are the most common cause of ……… a) leakage b) overheating c) breakage d) spooling.
……….. is used to remove dust, dirt and hair from the keyboard. a) Vacuum cleaner b) Brush c) Old rag d) Paper towels
It is advisable to wear an ………… to reduce transferring static electricity from your body to the computer. a) hand glove b) anti – static wrist strip c) coat d) dust cover
Which of the following is not a software maintenance? a) Virus b) Spyware c) Hard disk d) Registry removal
The software maintenance that involves developing and deploying solutions to problems is .……… a) corrective b) adaptive c) preventive d) perfective
The software maintenance that takes care of the changes that occur in software maintenance is called ……… a) adaptive b) corrective c) perfective d) preventive
Disk cleaning should be done ……….. a) hourly b) daily c) weekly d) yearly
…………….is the practice of keeping data protected from corruption and unauthorized access. (a) Data measurement (b) Data security (c) Data protection (d) Data control
Which of these is not a type of security control ……?(a) access control (b) auditing (c) encryption(d) storage
.………….. security mechanism uses mathematical schemes and algorithm to scramble data into unreadable text. (a) Encryption (b) Auditing (c) Authentication (d) Auditing
.…………. is the process of copying and archiving data so it may be used to restore original after a data loss (a) Backup (b) Restore (c) Control (d) Saving
…..……… is the computer professional responsible for the configuration, administration and maintenance of a database (a) Programmer (b) System administrator (c) Database administrator (d) System analyst
The process by which a database is moved back to a consistent and usable state is called………. (a) cash recovery (b) crash recovery (c) past recovery (d) undo recovery
The recovery algorithm that uses no-force and steals approach is ………….. (a) ARIAS (b) ARIES (c) ARREARS (d) ARIS
Which of these is not a crash recovery type ………… (a) ARIES (b) Media recovery (c) Check pointing (d) UNDO
Which of the following operations prevents file loss? (a) file backup (b) file conversion (c) file maintenance (d) file sorting
Computer virus cannot be transmitted by ______ (a) downloading files (b) e – mail attachment (c) pen drives (d) typing on a keyboard
The records of students in a school are kept in order of arrival. What files access methods would be used to access a student’s record if the latest record would first be retrieved? (a) direct (b) indexed (c) batch (c) sequential
A program designed to detect and prevent malicious program from a computer system is known as _____ (a) spyware (b) pass code (c) malware (d) firewall
The performance of the computer can be enhanced by ______ (a) using a large monitor (b) using a faster printer (c) installing a scanner (d) increasing the memory size
Which of the following is used to retrieve specific information from data base tables? (a) index (b) query (c) report (d) table
This is sequence of secret characters used to enable access to a file, program, computer system and other resources. (a)backup (b) password (c)authentication (d)algorithms
The process of copying and archiving of computer data so it may be used to restore the original after a data loss event is _____ (a)backup (b) password (c)authentication (d)algorithms
A Microsoft Office application suite includes the following except ______ (a) Word (b) Access (c) Corel draw (d) Power point

Write the full meaning of the following COMPUTER short keys from 31 – 40

CTRL + Z
CTRL + Y
CTRL + A
CTRL + P
CTRL + B
CTRL + R
CTRL + S
CTRL + V
CTRL + D
CTRL + C

THEORY PARTS: ANSWER (4) question.

1a. Define Computer

1b. Mention three Uses of computer

1c. Mention three Advantages of Computer

1d. list all the 4 classification of computer

2a. Mention the classification of computer by size

2b. Mention the classification of computer by type

2c. Mention the classification of computer by purpose

2d. Mention the classification of computer by generation

3a. define

Maintenance
Corrective Maintenance
Perfective Maintenance
Adaptive Maintenance
Preventive maintenance

3b. mention 5 maintenance tips

4a. what is database security

4b. list 5 ways types of security control on the data

5a. List and explain the four software maintenance.

5b. State four benefits of software maintenance

5c. State three routine computer maintenance

6a. Explain data security.

6b. Explain types of security control on data that you know

6c. Define the roles of a database administrator in data security

6d. Define backup and list its importance in data security

Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.A 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.C

10.D 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.C

18.A 19.B 20.C 21.D 22.A 23.C 24.B 25.C

26.A 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.

31. To Undo 32. To Redo 33. To Select all

34.To Print 35.To bold 36.Alighn right

37.To save 38.To paste 39.Duplicate

40.To copy

SS3 Data Processing Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

DATA PROCESSING

SECTION A

Instruction: Choose the correct option from the ones lettered A to D

Data models describe ……… data for storage in data management systems (a) structured (b) unstructured (c) integer (d) alphabetic
Which of this is not an example of standard data model (a) ISO 10303 (b) ISO 15926 (c) IDEAS GROUP d) Good shepherd
……….. key is a field in a relational table that matches a primary key of another table (a) foreign (b) surrogate (c) primary (d) candidate
……………. is graphical representation of entities and their relationships to each other (a) Entity-Relationship Diagram (b) Entity-Relationship Picture (c) Entity-Relationship Data (d) Entity-Relationship Symbol
A roof covers a building describes …………relationship (a) one-to-one (b) one-to-many (c) many-to-many(d) none of the above
Maintenance is necessary on computer to avoid ………. a) hardware failure b) stealing c) invasion d) crime
Excess heat accelerates the deterioration of the delicate ……… in the system. (a) vacuum (b) transistors (c) circuits (d) particles
Dust and dirt are the most common cause of …… (a) leakage (b) overheating (c) breakage (d) spooling.
……….. is used to remove dust, dirt and hair from the keyboard. a) Vacuum cleaner b) Brush c) Old rag d) Paper towels
It is advisable to wear an ………… to reduce transferring static electricity from your body to the computer. (a) hand glove (b) anti – static wrist strip (c) coat (d) dust cover
Which of the following is NOT a software maintenance? a) Virus b) Spyware c) Hard disk d) Registry removal
The software maintenance that involves developing and deploying solutions to problems is .……… (a) corrective (b) adaptive (c) preventive (d) perfective
The software maintenance that takes care of the changes that occur in software maintenance is called ……… (a) adaptive (b) corrective (c) perfective (d) preventive
Disk cleaning should be done ……….. a) hourly b) daily c) weekly d) yearly
Patches and update are regularly released by software companies to tackle security problems found in …………. a) programs b) hardware c) people ware d) peripheral
…………….is the practice of keeping data protected from corruption and unauthorized access. (a) Data measurement (b) Data security (c) Data protection (d) Data control
Which of these is not a type of security control ……?(a) access control (b) auditing (c) encryption(d) storage
.………….. security mechanism uses mathematical schemes and algorithm to scramble data into unreadable text. (a) Encryption (b) Auditing (c) Authentication (d) Auditing
.…………. is the process of copying and archiving data so it may be used to restore original after a data loss (a) Backup (b) Restore (c) Control (d) Saving
…..……… is the computer professional responsible for the configuration, administration and maintenance of a database (a) Programmer (b) System administrator (c) Database administrator (d) System analyst
The process by which a database is moved back to a consistent and usable state is called………. (a) cash recovery (b) crash recovery (c) past recovery (d) undo recovery
The recovery algorithm that uses no-force and steals approach is ………….. (a) ARIAS (b) ARIES (c) ARREARS (d) ARIS
ARIES works in ……………. Phases (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
Which of these is not a crash recovery type ………… (a) ARIES (b) Media recovery (c) Check pointing (d) UNDO
………. Crash recovery uses backup files (a) Check point (b) ARIES (c) Media recovery (d) Atomicity

Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.A

10.A 11.A 12.A 13.A 14.B 15.A 16.B 17.D

18.A 19.A 20.C 21.B 22.B 23.A 24.A 25.A

SECTION B: THEORY

A) Define the following terms (i) Entity (ii) Attribute (iii) Relationship

(b) What is cardinality?

(a) Define the following (i) Primary key (ii) Foreign key (iii) Composite primary key

(b) Explain the term Normal Form.

3. State the steps involve in maintaining a computer hardware

4. Mention six tools used in cleaning computer hardware

5. Explain steps for cleaning the following (i) Keyboard (ii) Monitor

6. List steps to clean DVD drive lens.

7. Discuss the four types of software maintenance.

8. State five benefits of software maintenance.

9. State five routine computer maintenance.

10. State six computer maintenance tips.

SS3 Economics Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR TWO (2) S.S.3

ECONOMICS

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

There are ______ types of services occupation (b) 10 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4
The following are involved in indirect services except (a)police (b)law makers (c)barbers (d)civil servants
Consumers pay for direct services indirectly. (a) True (b) False
This includes personal services rendered for direct consumption (a) direct services (b)indirect service (c) consumers (d) industry services
Doctors working in public hospitals are paid directly (a) True (b) False
______occupation refers to all the people involved in the distribution and exchange of goods produced by the industrial sector (a)commence (b)trade (c)commercial (d)exporters
The following are types of commercial occupation except (a)importer (b)trading (c)tourism (d)banking
___involves the business of providing information about the existence of a product to the potential buyers. (a)communication (b)transportation (c)trading (d)advertising
___is the process of buying, selling and distribution of goods and service (a)manufacturing (b)commerce (c)trading (d)wholesale
One of these is NOT a commercial workers (a)traders (b)importers (c)retailer (d)post master
The service industries is also called the tertiary sector of industry. (a) True (b) False
Industries provide services to business as well as to the final consumers (a) banking (b) service (c)direct (d)insurance
The following are examples of manufacturing industries except (a)shoe making (b)textile processing (c)wood processing (d)food processing
Assemble goods manufactured into usable form (a)service industry (b)manufacturing Industry (c)construction industry (d)primary industry
_____is done in Bida, Benin and Kane (a)textile (b)ropes (c)brass and silver (d)mat making
One of these is not a contribution of manufacturing and construction sector to Nigeria’s NP(a)infrastructural development (b)manpower development (c)funding of education (d) development of mono economy
Types of industries depend mainly on raw materials obtained from their immediate locality (a)food processing (b)construction (c)manufacturing (d)local craft (cottage)
GNP means (a)government net profit (b)gross net profit (c)general national product (d)gross national product
Most of the products of manufacturing industries like machinery are not usually from western nations. (a) True (b) False
_ _are done in Kano, Akweate okene and iseyin (a)pottery (b)leather works (c)textile/cloth weaving (d)food processing.
There are types of industries (a)4 (b)10 (c)3 (d)5
____industries is concerned with the rendering of services (a)tertiary (b)secondary (c)construction (d)primary
______use simple tools and their work is of high artistic (a)shoe pressing (b)local craft (c)plastic processing (d)leather work
What is the name of the German company called that first make an attempt towards exploration in Nigeria (a)Butman limited (b)shell D (c) Anglo Dutch (d) Butman corporation.
Shell D.P. discovered its first commercial crude oil in the country in what year a) 1908 (b)1956 (c)1960 (d)1958
In 1960 when Nigeria became independent, the volume of output of crude oil was just about (a) one million barrels per day (b)four million barrels (c)six million barrels done hundred million barrels.
The following are negative contribution of petroleum to Nigeria economy except (a) economic instability (b)high rated inflation (c)manpower development (d) rural-urban migration.
NNPC was established in what year (a)1960 (b)1977(c)1982 (d)1872.
OPEC is responsible for exploration, production and refining of petroleum. (a) True (b) False
The exchange of goods and services across different countries can be described as …… A. Bi-lateral trade B. multilateral trade C. national trade D. home trade
One of these is not a positive contributions of petroleum to Nigerian economic (a)generation of employment (b)source of revenue (c)development of mono-economy (d) positive foreign policy.
The instrument used in many countries to restrict imports include: A. high tariff B. price index C. exercise duties D. bank rates E. subsidies.

34. Since 1976 till date, petroleum has remained the major source of government revenue (a) True (b) False

35. Foreign Exchange control in Nigeria is enforced by the …………A. Commercial banks B. Merchant banks C. Mortgage bank D. Central bank

36.____ refers to the skills training, experience, education, knowledge etc contributed by humans to a business (a) brain drain (b)national capital (c)education (d)human capital

37. One of these is NOT a factors that affect the efficiency of human capital (a) skills (b) education (c)training (d)family influence

38. The following are countries in the south east of Asia except (a) Taiwan (b) Akweate (c) Singapore (d) Hong Kong

39. Exchange Control is a weapon used in regulating ……. A. Internal trade B. stock exchange C. Foreign trade D. barter trade E. exchange of per sound property

40 Devaluation means A. reduction in the value of the national currency B. a reduction in the purchasing power of foreign currencies C. a reduction in the value of domestic currency relative to foreign currencies D. a decrease in the purchasing power of foreign currencies.

41._____ is also known as foreign or external trade (a)internal trade (b)foreign trade (c)international trade (d)external trade

42. The following are advantages of international trade except (a) increase in world output (b) it faster closer in international relationship (c) source of revenue (d) creation of balance of payment.

43. One of these is NOT the objective of financial regulators (a)consumer protection (b) market confidence (c)lender of last resort (d)financial stability

44. There are types of international trade (a)4 (b)2 (c)5 (d)6 45. The following are barriers of international trade except (a)tariff (b)distance (c)difference in taste (d) religion/culture

46._____render services to the general public but they are not paid for by the members public directly (a)direct service (b)entertainers (c)commercial services (d)indirect services 47.______Industries are concerned with the extraction of raw materials provided by nature (a) primary (b)tertiary (c)manufacturing (d)secondary

48. The following are known with leather works except (a)Bide (b)Kano (c) Benin (d) Sokoto

50. What is the meaning of “ENDS” in the definition of economics (a) resources (b) choice output (d) wants

51. The price of a commodities is determined by the

(a) demand and supply (c) quantity of goods supplied (d) consumer

52. Which of the following is regarded as fixed cost? (a) cost of fuel (b) cost of light (c) rent on land (d) labour wages

53. Which of these does NOT encourages industrial development? (a) tax (b) exception (c) provision of financial institution (d) limitation of market for industrial products

54. The money per hour or week for work done is known as

(a) cost (b) time rate (c) bonus (d) wage rate

55. One of the following is NOT a barrier of international trade (a) religion (b) traffic (c) unemployment (d) government policy

56. These are instruments of trade restriction except

(a) embargo (b) import quota (c) foreign exchange (d) export duties

57. What is the full meaning of B. O. T. (a) Behaviour of Trader (b) Balance of Trade (c) balance of Tellers (d) Be Careful of Traders

58. All these are the components of balance of payment except___ (a) fixed account (b) capital account (c) monetary account (d) current account

59. _____is the total value of goods sold and bought by a country during a given period, usually a year (a) balance of payment (b) international trade balance of trade (d) import and export

60. The rate at which a country’s export is exchanged for her import is known as ……A. Terms of Trade B. Balance of Trade C. Current balance D. Visible balance

Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.B 6.C 7.C 8.D 9.B

10.B 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.A 17.D

18.D 19.B 20.C 21.C 22.A 23.B 24.B 25.D

26.A 27.C 28.B 29.A 30.B 31.D 32.A 33.A

34.A 35.D 36.D 37.D 38.B 39.B 40.C 41.C

42.A 43.C 44.B 45.C 46.D 47.A 48.A 49.C

50.D 51.A 52.C 53.B 54.D 55.C 56.D 57.B 58.A 59.A 60.A

THEORY

(Answer 6 questions)

(1i) Define manufacturing and construction industry

(ii) State and explain the types of manufacturing industry with examples

(2i) Differentiate between human capital and Brain drain

(ii) State five characteristics of human capital and five ways of arresting Brain drain

(3i) Differentiate between NNPC and OPEC

(ii) State five each of the positive and negative contribution of petroleum to Nigeria economy

(4i) State the five countries in the south east of Asia

(ii)Write out the full meaning of the following

a) NNPC

b) SMES

c) OPEC

d) GNP

e) ESSSA

What is Trade Union?

Describe any four functions of Trade Union.

What are Infant Industries?

Outline four objectives of price control policy.

Describe three functions of money.

Suggest any five ways a country can finance Deficit Balance of Payment.

Distinguish between favourable and unfavourable Balance of Payment

What are the arguments for protection in international trade?

Mention any five instruments of Trade protection.

SS3 Yoruba Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

EDE YORUBA

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

IBEERE IDANWO SAA KINNI

Ka akaye yi daradara, ki o si dahun awon I beeere abe re

AKAYE ITAN OPOLO ATI AKUKO

Ni aye atijo awon ore meji kan wa oruka okan ni opolo oruko keji ni akuko. Akuko se fun ore re wi pe ki o tele ohun lo si ile ana oun. Bi won ti de oju ona ni opolo daba wipe ki awon se ayipada aso awon. Bayi ni opolo gba aso akuko wo ti Akuko si gba aso opolo. bi won ti de ibe ni won bere si n pon won le ti won sin je won. Leyin ti won ti jeun ekeji tan ni won pe opolo ti won robi akuko ni, ti worfa iyawo lee lowo. Inu akuko to wa ninu aso opolo ko dun rara, fun idi eyi, o fi orin bonu o bere sii wi pe

Opolo gbawo mi wo…………..saworo

O gbawo mi wo…………..saworo

Kunbete kunbete……….saworo

Kunbete kunbete….saworo

Bayi ni awon oniyan teti si orin ti akuko to ti wa aso opolo nko ti wobo aso kuro lorun re ti won si da awo re pada ojukokoro ko dara rara

IBEERE

1. Awon melo lo n se ore ninu itan yii (a)mefa (b)meji (c)merin (d)mejila

2. Iru aba wo ni opolo da fun ore re (a)pe ki won maa fo soke (b)pe ki won maa korin aro (C)pe ki won paaro aso (d)pe ki won maa jo

3. Ta ni eni ti o be enikeji re lati lo sile anan? (a)opolo (b)kunbete (cakuko (d)saworo

4. Ta lo bere si nkorin ninu itan yii? (a)akuko (b)opolo (c)iyawo (d)djogbo

5. Eko wo ni itan yi kowa? (a)ki a maa ya aso‘alaso (b)ki ama se ojukpkoro (c)ojukokoro ko dara. (d)ki a maa sa fun ore

AKAYE 2

Orisirisi ise owo ni o wa ni ile Yoruba bii ise aro dida ,irun didi, ile mimo, bko riro, aga kikan ati beebee lo Ise owo ni ko ba je ise ti o dara julo ni orilede yii, sugbon iwa aisooto awon onise owo lo ba iyi ati eye ise naa je, bii iro pipa,ole jija jibiti lilu lara eni ti o ni nnkan,

Lara iro pipa won ni ise ti won mo wipe awon ko le e se ni ola, won a so wipe yoo pari lonii Bakan naa lara awon ohun elo ile ti onile ni, won yoo ji die nibe ta oja ti won ra ni naira meji, won a gba naira mewa lowo oluwa re won ko mo wipe iru wa yii lo n di ire aye ti awon nda lowo

6. Ewo ni ko si ninu ise owo ti a daruko?(a)aga kikan (b)ile mimo (c) run didi (d)okuta wiwa

7. Orisi ise owo ti o wanile yoruba je (a)mewa (b)pupo (C)kekere (d)mefa

8. Abuku awon onise owo ni _ _(a)iro pipa (b)lilu omose (c)otilmimu (d)owo ninan

9. iwa aisooto awon onise owo nje ki _ (a)aye won baje (b)won gbajumo (C)won ni owo sii (d)ire aye won ni idaduro

10. Ara iwa aisooto awon onise owo (a)gbigba owo ounje (b)gbigba owo ise (c)ibiti lilu (d)omose lilu

11. Kiki ti omo ba n ki obi re laaro je afihan asa____ (a)ikomojado (b)ikini (c)isomoloruko (d)eko

12. Awon wo ni a nki bayi “aroko bodun de” (a)oluko (b)akeeko (c)abe (d)awako

13. lye amin ohun inu ede yoruba je? (a)eyokan (b)meji (c)meta (d) merin

14. Ewo ni oro-oruko ninu iwonyi? (a)iwe (b)sun (c) hokoo (d) awon

15. Toka si oro-ise ninu gbolohun yil. “moje eba” (aleba (b)je (c)mo id)moje

16. Ewo ni oro asopo ninu gbolohun yil.”tope wa sugbon kop e”(a)tope (b)sugbon (c)ko pe (d) wa

17. Eniyan melo ni o ma anta ayo olopon? (a)meji (b)merin (c)meta (d)mefa

18. “papoda” tumo si (a)ku (b)sun (C)sare (d)kuro ni aye eni

19. Ere idareya ni awon wonyi ayafi (a)okoto (b)awebi (c)eke (d)boluboju

20. ___ __kii se ere osupa (a) o uboju (b)tente (c)ta lo wa nini ogb. naa (d)aalo apagbe

21. Okan ninu ere osupa ni. (a)ayo tita (b)ludo tita (c)ogun pipe (d) Hojuboju

22. Bawo ni a se seda orooruko yi “idajo”. (a)idajo (b)ida+jo (c)i+dajb (d)id+ajo

23. Oruko ti yoruba npe abiku ni_ (a)malomo (b)funmilayo (c)dgunremi (d)ogundelee

24. Pari owe yi ajeji owo kan”_ (a)la fin se ounje (b)la fi ngbe dmo (c)ko gberi dori (d)ko le fo aso mo

25. Oro ti a va lati inu ede kan si omiran ni a npe ni_ (a)oro ayalo (b)oro aropo (C)oro eyan (d)oro atokun

26. travel to lagos tomorrow”tumo si (a)mo lo si eko (b)nlo ti fe lo si eko (c)mo n lo si eko ni ola (d)mo lo eko

27. “kemi loves her parent” turno si (a)kemi mo obi re (b)kemi ati obire (Okemi feran won obire (d)kemi n bu awon obi re

28. Baba re n ko? Irufe gbolohun wo ni yii (a)gbolohun asa (b)gbolohun alaye (C)gbolohun ayisodi (d)gbolohun ibeere 29. Gbolohun ti o ni ju eyo oro-ise kan lo ni a n peni___(a)gbolohun abobe (bigbolohun kufuru

(c)gbolohun eleyo oro-ise (d)gbolohun olopo oro-ise

30. Omo ayo___ ni o maa wa nini iho kan. (a)meji (b)merin (C)eyo kan (d)meje

THEORY ( Dahun Ibeere meta pere)

1. Ko akanlo ede marun-un ati itumo won

2. Daruko eya gbolohun marur-un

3. Ko ere idaraya marun-un

4. Seda oro oruko marun-un nipa lilo apetunpe

5. Daruko awon orisa ile yoruba marun-un.

SS3 English Studies Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S.S. 3

ENGLISH – STUDIES

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A: SPEECH WORK

_____sounds are produced when the airstream flows from the lungs to the mouth without obstruction.(a) Vowel (b) consonant (c) idioms
There are twenty (20) vowels and ____consonants. (a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 13
The pure vowels are sub-divided or classified into short and long vowels (a) True (b) False
_______is a “double sound” vowels because the articulation involves a glide from one vowel quality to the other. (a) monothong (b) Diphthong
/ai/ as in ____(a) tar (b) tie (c) tea (d) stick

ESSAY

______essay describes and explains how something or work is done. It requires or calls for a clear understanding of what things are. (a) expository (b) narrative (c) descriptive
Define Essay
List 3 types of Essay
A _____Essay: This describes a person, place, or an object as clear as possible so that the reader can have a vivid mental picture of what the person or thing looks like. (a) descriptive (b) narrative (c) expository
Write 2 examples of a Narrative essay

GRAMMAR

Write out the types of Pronoun underline
She has gone to School.

(ii) He is Coming.

(iii) I have seen her.

Write out the types of Verb underline
The Student talked to the Principal this morning.
She danced yesterday
Write out the types of Adjectives underline
Andrew is beautiful than his sister.
Gbolahan is an intelligent boy.
Write out the types of Adverb underline
The children acts carefully
The teacher speaks wisely
She answered her mother quickly

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Define Drama
List 3 types of drama
‘What I Do Everyday’ is an example of ______ essay (a) narrative (b) descriptive (c) expository
Write features of a formal letter and informal letter
Define a formal letter and informal letter

COMPREHENSION PASSAGE

The raven came flying around the hills in raiding parties; sometimes, I think with the express purpose of annoying the falcons which nest there. The falcons quick to anger at any time, were obviously in a heat of fury when the ravens came scouting along the cliff. Hunting down time after, the wing almost closed. The falcon would attempt to drive away the raven. The latter, however, flew unconcernedly to and fro; only at the last split second of each falcon’s ready for the death blow, did the raven turn over sideway to present that remarkable wedge of break which could transfix the falcon were it to continue its wild descend. But the falcon, knowing its match, does not strike an adult raven, though it may kill a young one which has not yet acquired the agility characteristic of its race

QUESTION:

1. Describe brief it in your own words.

(a) The falcon’s method of attack

(b) The raven’s method of defense

2. Discuss the author’s style of writing stating whether his story has been a success or a failure.

3. What can ravens do?

4. Describe the attitude of falcons

5. Give the story a title.

POEM

I hear a sudden cry of Pain!

There is a rabbit in a snare

Now I hear the cry again

But I cannot kill from where

But I cannot tell from where

He is calling out for aid

Crying on the frightened air,

Making everything afraid

Wrinkling up his little face,

And the cry again for aid

And I cannot find the place!

And I cannot find the place

Where his paw is in the same

Little one! Oh little one!

I am searching everywhere.

QUESTION:

i. Give a Suitable but short title to this poem

ii. What is the Rhyme Scheme?

iii. The poet repeats the last line at every stanza in the first line of the next ______stanza. Why do you the poet does this? What effect has this on his style of writing?

iv. What is the mood of the poet in writing this piece of peom?

v. Comment on the use of aid in line 2 of the second stanza.

SS3 Financial Accounting Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

FINANCIAL – ACCOUNTING

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

Where there is no partnership agreement the Partnership Act 1890 section _______ should be applied (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 24 (d) 34
Which of the following is NOT true where there is no laid down agreement for the partnership? (a) Profits and losses to be shared equally (b) No interest on drawings (c) No interest in capital (d) Members of the public can invest in the shares of the business.
Which of the following increases the profit of a partnership? (a) Drawings (b) Interest on capital (c) Interest on drawings (d) Partnership salary
Which of the following statements is NOT true? (a) When we keep fixed capital accounts for partners we open their current accounts (b) When losses are made they are to be shared by the partners (c) When we keep floating capital account no current account is kept (d) A partnership can exist forever.
Which of the following can represent capital contributed by a partner to a partnership? (a) Cash only (b) Cheques only (c) Cash and cheques only (d) Cash, cheque and other assets.
The _____ accounts of partners are usually regarded as fixed so as to provide a permanent evidence of the initial amount with which the partnership is commenced (a) capital account (b) partners current (c) partnership deed
The _____ account of each partner is prepared to show what such a partner is entitled to withdraw from the business at any point in time. (a) capital account (b) partners current (c) partnership deed
Capital is regarded as ___account (a) fixed (b) current (c) capital
____ can be defined as the relationship which exists between two or more persons who are carrying on business in common with a view to making profit (a) profitable (b) sole proprietorship (c) partnership
The rules governing the conduct of a partnership business is contained in the document known as__(a) Deed of membership (b) Deed of partnership agreement (c) Deed of agreement
The profit and loss appropriation account marks the beginning of the difference between the final accounts of a sole trader and that of a partnership (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
Under profit and loss account of a partnership. The total drawings is ___ to the cash book (a) amounted (b) credited (c) debited
Under profit and loss account of a partnership. The total drawings is ___ to current account (a) amounted (b) credited (c) debited
____ is calculated from the date the amount is withdrawn to the end of the financial year. (a) interest (b) drawing (c) capitals (d) salary
The agreement made provision for salary to be paid to ___partners (a) non-active (b) active (c) dominant
The only significant difference between balance sheet of a sole trader is on the display of capital accounts and ___ accounts (a) current (b) savings (c) dominant
The reasons for such admission of new partners are the following except____ (a) expiration of old partnership agreement (b) to inject in more fund (c) death of a new partner
The compensations given to an old partner is called____(a) goodwill (b) bad-will (c) kind-will
____ is the benefit and advantage attached to an old established business as a result of its good name, efficient management good connection (a) good-power (b) power-will (c) goodwill
The value of goodwill is ____ to goodwill account (a) credited (b) debited (c) amounted
The value of goodwill is ____ to the capital accounts in the partners old profit and loss sharing ratio (a) credited (b) debited (c) amounted
Goodwill is (a) Fixed Asset (b) Current Asset (c) Current Liability (d) Intangible Asset
Goodwill can be classified into (a) Liquid (b) tangible (c) intangible (d) Inherent and purchased
_________ A/c is credited with increase in values of assets (a) goodwill (b) capital (c) revaluation (d) current
For a reduction in the value of an asset ___ the asset A/c and debit Revaluation A/c (a) debit (b) credit (c) deduct (d) Add
To dissolve a partnership means to bring an existing partnership business to an end. (a) true (b) false (c) maybe
____ means To record book value and sales proceeds of assets sold, dissolution expenses, assets taken over by partner and the share of profit or loss on dissolution (a) dissolution (b) realization (c) revaluation
The double entry for discount received from creditors on dissolution is (a) Cr. creditor A/c Dr. Cash A/c (b) Cr. Creditors A/c, Dr. Cash (c) Cr. realization A/c; Dr. Creditors (d) Dr. Bank, Cr. Capital A/c
Loss on an asset realized is debited to realization A/c and credited to ________ A/c (a) Cash (b) Asset (c) Realization (d) Revaluation
Assets taken over by partners on dissolution are credited to realization A/c and debited to __________ (a) asset A/c (b) cash A/c (c) Capital A/c (d) all of the above
Discount allowed is debited to ____ A/c (a) capital (b) realization (c) current (d) P & L
For goodwill on dissolution debit _________ A/c and credit _________ A/c respectively (a) cash and capital (b) goodwill and realization (c) realization and goodwill (d) capitals and cash
____ is a business owned, managed, controlled and financed by association of people which possess legal entity with the usual motive of maximizing owners’ wealth (a) business (b) company (c) banks
_____ is a company whose owners liabilities is limited to the value of share subscribed in the company (a) company limited by share (b) company limited by guarantee (c) unlimited company
_____ are companies whose owners liabilities is limited to the value of share subscribed in the company plus additional fund they undertake to pay into the company in case of liquidation (a) company limited by share (b) company limited by guarantee (c) unlimited company
____ is a company whose liabilities of the owner are unlimited (a) company limited by share (b) company limited by guarantee (c) unlimited company
The minimum number of shareholders to form the business is___ (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5
____is a company that Restricts the right to transfer its shares and Limits the number of its members to fifty (a) public limited (b) private limited (c) tertiary limited
____is a company where there is no restriction on the maximum number of shareholders. The name of the company ends with the word “PLC” (a) public limited (b) private limited (c) tertiary limited
___ states the regulations which govern the internal management of the company affairs (a) memorandum of association (b) prospectus (c) articles of association
____ is a document which interacts the company with outside world (a) memorandum of association (b) prospectus (c) articles of association
____ is a document issued by limited companies, inviting the public to subscribe to it shares. (a) certificate of incorporation (b) prospectus (c) articles of association
______ is a document which gives legal authority to the company to operate as a legal entity (a) certificate of incorporation (b) prospectus (c) articles of association
When a company can sue in its own name and right, we say it possesses (a) legal entity (b) legal jargons (c) legal portfolio (d) legal value
The company whose liabilities of its owners are limited to the value of share bought in the company is called (a) limited by share (b) limited by guarantee (c) unlimited by share (d) limited by decree
The amount of capital a company is allowed to raised in the capital market is ___(a) authorized capital (b) issue capital (c) called up capital (d) un-issued capital
The name of private limited company ends with (a) Ltd (b) Plc (c) & co (d) Ent.
The name of public limited company ends with (a) Corporation (b) Ltd (c) Plc (d) Authority
Net purchase in trading account is —————- (a)purchases –return outwards (b) purchases – return inward (c)purchases – carriage inwards (d) purchases – sales
Net sales in trading account is ————– (a)purchases – sales (b)sales – return inwards (c)sales – return outwards (d) sales + purchases
Working capital is ————— (a)current assets – current liabilities ( b) current liabilities – current assets (c) total current assets (d) current assets + stock
Capital owned is ————— (a)current assets – total liabilities (b) total assets – total liabilities (c) total assets + total capital (d) current assets + stock
Capital employed is ———– (a)total assets – current liabilities (b)total assets – total liabilities (c ) total liabilities + all assets (d) current assets + current liabilities
____ can be defined as units of capital of ownership of a limited company (a) capital (b) bond (c) shares
During the period of prosperity, the shareholders they receive more dividends known as ___ (a) bond (b) shares (c) equities
____________are also called deferred shares (a) issue shares (b) founder’s share (c) preference shares
Share can be issued at a premium and paid in full application. (a) false (b) maybe (c) true
When a company received application for shares fewer than available for sale, the share is said to be a) oversubscribed b) under-subscribed c)subscription at par (d) forfeited
When a company received application for more than available shares for sales, the share is said to be (a) ever-subscribed (b) under- subscribed (c) over- subscribed (d) cancelled
A share issued below the nominal value is said to be issued at (a) discount (b) premium (c) at par (d) loss

SS3 Financial Account Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.D 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C

10.B 11.A 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.C

18.A 19.C 20.B 21.A 22.A 23.C 24.C 25.A

26.A 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.C 31.A 32.D 33.B

34.A 35.B 36.C 37.B 38.B 39.A 40.C 41.A

42.B 43.A 44.A 45.A 46.A 47.A 48.B 49.A

50.B 51.A 52.A 53.A 54.C 55.C 56.B 57.C 58.B 59.C 60.A

THEORY

List the rules approved by the Partnership Act 1890 to be applied where there is no partnership agreement.
What is bonus issue?
Define the term shares.
Explain the following: Cummulative and non cumulative preference share.
Enumerate five features of private limited company.
Mention four documents that must be sent to Corporate Affairs Commission before a company can be register.
What is a prospectus.
Explain (a) appropriation account (b) Balance sheet
What is a revaluation account?
What is a Company?
Mention and explain three types of companies.
List five assets that may be revalued in partnership accounts.
What is interest on capital?
Explain the term Goodwill.
List five circumstances that can give rise to the valuation of goodwill in partnership accounts.
Define Partnership
Write short notes on (a) Interest on capital (b) Interest on drawing
Give the double entries for the following in the final account of a partnership. (i) Interest on drawings N500 (ii) Partnership salary N3,000 (iii) Interest on capital N5,000 (iv) Share of profit N10,000
List seven items that should be contained in a partnership deed.
Prepare the capital and current accounts of the following partners:-

Capital accounts Obi 50, 000 cr.

Oba 20, 000 cr.

Interest in capital 5% p.a.

Salaries Obi 5, 000

Oba 6, 000

Interest on drawings 5%

Drawings Obi 2, 000

Oba 1, 500

Current accounts balances b/f

Obi 3, 000 cr.

Oba 500 dr.

5. Obi and Oba are partners in a firm of chartered accountants with initial capital contributions of N50,000 and N40,000 respectively which are to be kept fixed in the partnership books. You are required to show the cash account, partners’ capital accounts and balance sheet extracts.

SOLUTION

CASH ACCOUNT (EXTRACTS)

Capital: Obi 50, 000

Oba 40, 000

PARTNERS CAPITAL ACCOUNT

Obi Oba

N N

Cash A/c 50, 000 40, 000

BALANCE SHEET (EXTRACTS)

Capital A/c N N

Obi 50, 000

Oba 40, 000 Cash in hand 90, 000

SS3 Food and Nutrition Examination Question For First Term

S.S.S 3 (THREE)

FOOD – NUTRITION

1^ST TERM EXAMINATION

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME: 1 HR 45 MIN

Leftover food should only be (a) served with stew (b) recooked (c) an accompaniment (d) reheated
Which of the following is a rule for reheating food? (a) food flavor should not be added (b) food should be reheated quickly and coated (c) food should always be re-cooked (d) fresh fruit or vegetable should be added.
An important principle in rechauffe cookery is to (a) reheat and recook (b) heat food as quickly as possible (c) prevent wastage of food (d) add flavor to food
Which of the following groups of people should be advised to increase the number of meals each day? (a) Aged (b) vegetarian (c) Overweight (d) Underweight.
The essential substances present in food are called (a) atoms (b) nutrients (c) compounds (d) elements.
Which of the chemical element is unique to protein (a) carbon (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
A dietician in a hospital (a) collaborates with the catering manager to plan meals (b) is in charge of the staff during meal service (c) has control over the chief cook and service (d) obtains supply and supervises preparation of the food.
Which of the following is the major reason why we cook food? To (a) combine two or more substances (b) change form, colour and size (c) maintain nutritive value (d) increase digestibility.
The small equipment on which kebabs are pierced are called (a) sticks (b) skewers (c) needles (d) rods.
Which of the following sugar is the sweetest (a) maltose (b) fructose (c) lactose (d) glucose.
Which of these steps should be taken in order to ensure good kitchen hygiene? (i) used kitchen linen should be washed (ii) the cook must be medically screened (iii) fire must be put off after cooking (iv) trap doors must be used. (a) I and II only (b) II and IV only (c) I and IV only (d) II and III only.
Which of the following practices show kitchen hygiene? (a) Cleanliness of the working area (b) proper storage of equipment and tools (c) use of kitchen gloves (d) cleanliness of the guest.
The dried edible seeds of legumes are called (a) grains (b) bulbs (c) cereals (d) pulses.
Giblets is a term used to describe (a) beef offals (b) fish offals (c) poultry offals (d) lamb offals.
Food item which appears regularly in the diet and in large quantity are (a) carbohydrate (b) farm grown (c) staple food (d) convenience.
Which of the following is NOT true about rechauffe? (a) Additional ingredients are added (b) additional moisture is needed (c) food must be re-cooked (d) food must be finely divided.
A laboratory tool commonly used to perform the million’s test is the (a) incubator (b) microscope (c) petri-dish (d) test tube.

What is the importance of extra seasoning in rechauffe cooking? It is to (a) adjust texture (b) decrease face appeal (c) enhance flavor (d) impair taste.
Soursop ice cream is a typical example of a/an ________ dish (a) Cereal (b) egg (c) fruit (d) vegetable
What is the percentage of carbohydrate in the composition of whole cow milk? (a) 0.7 (b) 35 (c) 4.9 (d) 83.7
In the absence of electric mixer, the small piece of equipment used to mix cake ingredients is a ___(a) kitchen fork (b) scrapper (c) spatula (d) wooden spoon
Which of these nutrients spares for energy in the body when carbohydrate and fat are inadequate (a) minerals (b) oil (c) proteins (d) vitamins
Using the hands to work dough is referred to as (a) cutting (b) folding (c) kneading (d) rolling.
Which of the following edible flesh is considered white meat (a) bacon (b) beef (c) mutton (d) poultry
Increase in the composition of foods rich in fibre is recommendable for someone suffering from (a) brain tumor (b) digestive disorder (c) loss of appetite (d) poor eyesight
Which of the following fresh foods has the lowest shelf life (a) egg (b) fish (c) spinach (d) pineapple
Which of the following is a step in bread making (a) creaming (b) proofing (c) mincing (d) stirring
What is the equivalent of two teaspoons syrup in milligrams? (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20
Lack of vitamin D in the body causes ricket in children and ________ in adults (a) anemia (b) blindness (c) osteomalacia (d) scurvy
The organization responsible for penalizing food manufacturers involved in misbranding and adulteration is (a) ECOWAS (b) FAO (c) NAFDAC (d) WHO
Which of the following labour saving devices has the trifunctional ability to beat, whisk and whip food commodities (a) blender (b) juicer (c) meat mincer (d) mixer
Which of the following types of grain has the highest gluten content (a) millet (b) oat (c) barley (d) wheat
The process of soaking root vegetables in salted water after peeling is to (a) hasten spoilage (b) improve texture (c) increase water content (d) prevent discolouration
Burns due to lifting hot vessels in the kitchen can be prevented by using (a) apron (b) chef cap (c) nose muff (d) gloves
Which of the following is an energy saving device (a) egg whisk (b) microwave (c) toaster (d) yam pounder
Religious and cultural beliefs that prohibit people from consuming food commodities is termed (a) allergy (b) fad (c) fallacy (d) taboo
Fruits and vegetables are rich sources of (a) saturated fat (b) dietary fibre (c) protein (d) sugar
The part of poultry that is slit open at the side to remove its inner bag is (a) gizzard (b) heart (c) kidney (d) liver.
Recommended dietary allowance is affected by _________ and body size (a) age (b) cultural value (c) likes and dislikes (d) economic status
One of the major functions of NAFDAC is to ensure (a) effective marketing strategies for food products (b) good quality and safe food products (c) maximization of profit by manufacturers (d) regulation of price of food products.
Lumps in dry food items can be removed by the use of a (a) colander (b) knife (c) sieve (d) whisk
The right that enables a consumer to return an article with complaints within a stated period of time is known as (a) guarantee (b) opportunity (c) warranty (d) privilege
Fat soluble vitamin include (a) vitamins A, B & C (b) vitamins A, D, E & K (c) vitamins B, D & E (d) vitamins C, D, E & K
Food borne diseases can be prevented by (a) buying expensive food commodities for meals (b) not being watchful for pest infestation (c) using kitchen tools properly (d) washing foods thoroughly before consumption
A set of instructions for preparing a dish that includes a list of ingredients and procedures for combining the ingredients is called (a) catalogue (b) menu (c) order of work (d) recipe.
A retailer is someone who (a) determines commodity price (b) distributes goods to wholesaler (c) purchase goods for personal consumption (d) sells in very small quantities directly to the consumer.
Which of the following deficiencies is due to lack of iron in the diet (a) anemia (b) bleeding gum (c) rickets (d) night blindness
The beneficial chemical substances present in foods are known as (a) diets (b) enzymes (c) nutrients (d) meals
Kitchen equipment are classified as large when they are (a) permanently fixed (b) used to store food items (c) difficult to move about (d) used to store utensils.
The third agent in the consumer network chain is the (a) seller (b) retailer (c) wholesaler (d) manufacturer
To prevent contamination of food by flies, an important immediate action is to (a) sweep the surroundings (b) cover the food (c) empty waste bins (d) eliminate breeding places
Deficiency of protein in children results to (a) jaundice (b) marasmus (c) kwashiorkor (d) scurvy
Poor teeth formation can be prevented by eating foods rich in (a) protein (b) iodine (c) calcium (d) iron.
An example of a method of cooking with radiated heat s (a) roasting (b) boiling (c) grilling (d) baking
When a homemaker compares prices and quality of food items before purchase, he/she is a/an (a) wise consumer (b) stingy consumer (c) spendthrift (s) impulsive buyer.
An example of dish prepared from left over seafood is (a) kedgeree (b) toad-in-the-hole (c) shepherd’s pie (d) rissoles.
A food item is adulterated when (a) it is wrongly labelled (b) it is unhygienic (c) quantity is reduced (d) it is intentionally debased.
Steaming is a suitable cooking method for the aged because it (a) reduces fibre content of food (b) enhances flavor of food (c) improves quality of food (d) retains nutrient in food
Which of the following vegetables belongs to the bulb class (a) carrot (b) pumpkin (c) garlic (d) tomato
During baking, frequent opening of the oven (a) lowers oven temperature (b) regulates oven temperature (c) increases oven temperature (d) stabilizes oven temperature

SS3 Food and Nutrition Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.D 2.B 3.B 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.B

10.B 11.D 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.A 16.D 17.B

18.C 19.D 20.D 21.D 22.D 23.C 24.B 25.B

26.C 27.D 28.B 29.A 30.C 31.A 32.D 33.D

34.D 35.B 36.D 37.D 38.C 39.A 40.B 41.D

42.C 43.B 44.D 45.D 46.D 47.A 48.C 49.A

50.B 51.C 52.C 53.C 54.B 55.A 56.A 57.B 58.A 59.C 60.A

THEORY INSTRUCTION: Answer three (3) questions in this section.

Briefly explain the following:

Adulterated food , Consumer

Impulse buying , Wholesaler (4 marks)

(b) Mention four importance of consumer education (4 marks)

What are kitchen abrasives? (2 marks)

(aii) Identify four local kitchen abrasives (2 marks)

(b) State three advantages and two disadvantages of boiling method of cooking (5 marks)

State five food sanitation laws in Nigeria (5 marks)

(b) Mention four pests commonly found in the kitchen (2 marks)

List and explain four factors that influence the formation of food habits (8 marks)

(b) Outline two uses of napkins at the table (1 mark)

State four reasons for cooking food (4 marks)

(b) Highlight three factors that can affect the drying of food items (3 marks)

SS3 Further Mathematics Examination Question For First Term

SSS3

FURTHER – MATHEMATICS

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

______ distribution deals with theoretical probability model based on the randomness of certain natural occurrences. (a) probability (b) binominal (c) section
The _______ distribution is more suitable when the number of trials is very large and probability of successes is small. (a) binominal (b) poisson (c) flexibility
The _____ arises from a repeated random experiment which has two possible outcomes. (a) poisson (b) probability (c) binominal
What is the variance of a binomial distribution? (a) np (b) √npq ( c ) npq (d) p2
The mean (µ) of a poisson distribution is the same as___(a) Standard deviation (b) variance (c) mean (d) mean deviation
A random variable X is normally distributed with mean 65 and standard deviation 5, find: Pr (60 ≤ x≤ 70) (a) 0.09 (b) 0.68 (c) 00.68
Which of the following is not true about a resolution of force? (a) a force can be resolve in two directions which are perpendicular to each other (b) a force can be resolved into two parts and each part (c) a force can be resolved into three parts and each parts
The horizontal component of a force p which makes an angle of 50o with the horizontal is 30N. Find the force P. (a) 46.67N (b) 46.77N (c) 45.67N
The moment of a force about a reference point is defined as the_______of the force and the force arm (a) product (b) division (c) addition
Moment of a force is a vector quantity and its units is______(a) NN (b) Nmm (c) nm (d) Nm
The frictional force for any two surfaces in contact has a value given by ____ (a) F = SUR (b) F = US (c) F = UR
_______ can be defined as the force which tends to oppose the relative sliding motion of two surfaces in contact. (a) friction (b) force (c) fraction (d) surd
A mass of 4kg rests on a rough horizontal table, with U = 0.4. Find the least force sufficient to move the mass: (take g = 10ms-2)_________ (a) F = 15N (b) F = 16N (c) F = 116N
When two bodies are in contact, each one is exerting a ___ on the other (a) motion (b) friction (c) force
Where R is the normal reaction between the bodies and obtained as; R = ___(a) m x g (b) n x g (c) mn x g

SS3 Further Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.A 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.C

6. B 7. C 8.A 9.A 10.D

11.C 12.A 13.B 14.C 15.A

SECTION B: THEORY

( Answer 3 questions only)

1. Find the probability that when two fair coins are tossed 5 times a head and a tail appear three times.

Solution:

Two fair coins = (HT, TH, TT, HH) = 4

Prob (a head and a tail) = 2/4 = ½

i.e p = ½ , q = ½ (p + q = 1)

n = 5, r = 3.

:. P(x = r) =nCrprqn-r

p ( x = 3) = 5C3 ( ½ ) 3 ( ½ ) 5-3

p (x = 3) = 10 x 1/8 x ¼ = 10/32 = 5/16

p (x = 3) = 0.3125.

2. A random variable X is normally distributed with mean 65 and standard deviation 5, find:

(i) Pr (55 ≤ x ≤ 75) (ii) Pr (50 ≤ x ≤80 )

Solution

i. Pr (55 ≤ x ≤ 75) = Pr (µ -2r ≤ x ≤ µ + 2r)

= 0.95

ii. Pr (50 ≤ x ≤ 80) = Pr (µ -35 ≤ x ≤ µ +3 r)

= 0.997

3. If a force of 10N is just sufficient to move a mass of 2kg resting on a rough horizontal table, find the coefficient of friction (g = 10ms-2)

Solution

F = 10 N , m = 2kg.

F = UR

10 = U x 2 x 10

10 = 20U

u = 10/20

U = 0.5

4. A body of mass 4.5kg rests on a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 47o to the horizontal. Calculate the magnitude of the force P parallel to the plane just enough to prevent the body from sliding down the plane (g= 9.8ms-2).

Solution

P = mg Sin Ө

P = 4.5 x 9.8 x sin 47o = 44.1 x 0.7314.

P = 32.25N.

SS3 Geography Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

GEOGRAPHY

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2023

SECTION A

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

The scale of the map is approximately. (a) 1:10 000 (b) 1:25 000 (c) 1:200 000 (d) 1:50 000 (e) 1: 100 000
The safest means of moving goods and passengers from one country to another is by ________ transport (a) Air (b) Road (c) Rail (d) water
The means of transport that is more prone to accident is (a) water (b) air (c) road (d) rail
One advantage of inland water-ways is that (a) they are flexible (b) they are fast (c) goods are transported cheaply (d) it is affected by seasonality
The cheapest means of transportation is (a) Air (b) water (c) Rail (d) Road
The focus of ECOWAS is on _____ growth. (a) Political (b) Economic (c) religions (d) ethnic
The last country to join ECOWAS is ______(a) Nigeria (b) Cape verde (c) Guinea Bissau (d) Mali
The Administrative Headquarters of ECOWAS is ______ (a) Abuja (b) Dakar (c) Lome (d) Accra
The intensity of an earthquake is measured with (a) Seismograph(b) Ritcher’s scale (c) Campbell stoke (d) Barometer
One of these is NOT a problem of ECOWAS ________(a) political instability (b) strong ties with colonial masters (c) free movement (d) similar climate
Which of the following statements is NOT true of the solar system? (a) the rays of the sun gives energy to the system (b) all the planets rotate round the sun (c) all the planets have their orbits round the sun (d) the planets revolve around the sun (e) the sun is at the centre of the system
In the southern hemisphere, the autumnal equinox occurs on (a) 21^st March (B) 21^st June (c) 23^rd September (d) 22^nd December (e) 4^th January
The layer of earth found immediately beneath the crust is called (a) hydrosphere (b) lithosphere (c) mesosphere (d) barysphere (e) core(Mantle)
“They are formed from the accumulation of materials derived from other rocks which have been cemented together”. This is a description of (a) metamorphic rocks (b) Plutonic rocks (c) organically formed sedimentary rocks (d) colvanic rocks (e) mechanically formed sedimentary rocks
Which of the following is a volcanic plateau? (a) kukuruku (b) Terra Rosa (b) Deccan (b) Graben (e) Atlas
The overriding portion of the thrust fold is termed (a) a simplefold (b) an overfold (c) a syncline (d) a nappe (e) an anticline
The point an earthquake first appears directly above the surface is called(a) Epicentre (b) Focus (c) Origin (d) Core
When the roof of a coastal cave collapses, it forms (a) a doline (b) an estuary (c) a gorge (d) a lagoon (e) a geo
During wave actions, the rush of water onshore is called (a) longshore drift (b) swash (c) undertow (d) backwash (e) tidal current
The point at which the earthquake first began is called(a) Focus (b) Epicentre (c) Vent (d) Lithosphere
Most warm ocean currents flow (a) on the eastern side of continents (b) towards the equator (c) in the Pacific ocean (d) on the western side of continents (e) towards the high latitudes
Stalagmite and stalactite are found in ………. (a) caves (a) huts (c) desert regions (d) plunge pool
The main element in the limestone region is (a) oxygen (b) nitrogen (c) calcium carbonate (d) oxygen
One of these areas in Nigeria is NOT a limestone region(a) Okpella,Edo State (b) Ewekoro,OgunState (c)Kafanchan,Kaduna State (d) Shagamu, Ogun State
When you observe the wind vane, the head of the arrow shows the (a) speed of the wind (b) direction to which the wind is blowing (c) duration of the wind (d) weight of the wind (e) direction from which the wind is blowing
Earth tremor is simply the _______ of the earthcrust(a) folding (b) shaking (c) weathering (d) formation
A soil profile refers to the (a) gradient of the soil (b) slope of the soil (c) vertical section of the soil (d) mineral composition of the soil (e) horizontal equivalent of the soil exaggeration
Composite cone is a volcano having successive layers of (a) ash and cinder only (b) cinder, ash and pyroclasts (c) ash, acid lava and parasitic cones (d) pyroclasts and parasitic cones.
Crater lakes are most likely to occur in (a) areas of active erosion (b) region of extinct volcanoes (c) areas of fold mountains (d) heavily faulted region.
Which of the following is NOT a measure of environmental control? (a) preservation (b) Stabilization (c) Regradation (d) Afforestation (e) Conservation
An active volcano is one that (a) has not erupted recently (b) will not erupt (c) erupts periodically (d) has earlier erupted violently.
When magma solidifies at the crest of an anticline or at the bottom of a syncline, the feature formed is called (a) batholith (b) laccolith (c) phacolith (d) lopolith
Through which of the following sea routes is crude oil from Nigeria transported to Europe? (a) North-Atlantic (b) Trans-pacific (c) Far-East (d) South-Atlantic (e) Trans-Indian
Which of the following continents has the largest population? (a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Europe (d)North America (e) South America
Which of the following is a feature of extrusive vulcanicity (a) Lopolith (b) Sill (c) Composite cone (d) Batholith
All the following are major sources of air pollution except? (a) gas flaring (b) domestic cooking (c) aviation combustion (d) industrial furnaces (e) vehicle combustion
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between rural and urban centers? (a) Cities are not as important as rural areas (b) Rural areas are more productive than cities (c) Cities can exist without the rural not as important as rural areas. (d) Cities and rural areas depend of each other (e) Rural areas exist only to serve the cities
A place where water issues out from the ground naturally is called a ……… (a) pond (b) spring (c) pool (d) well
Which of the following is the characteristic pattern or rural settlements in the eastern scarplands of Nigeria? (a) Satellite (b) Nucleated (c) Elongated (d) Dispersed (e) Linear
Which of the following statements is correct about the Sokoto plains? (a) It is not an area of inland drainage (b) It lies in the middle of the country and borders the Rivers Benue and Niger (c) It is a pear-shaped upland area (d) It consists of the basement complex rocks (e) It is dissected by rift valleys and plateaus
The following rivers take their sources from the highlands of Western Nigeria except (a) Shasha (b) Wase (c) Owena (d) Osse (e) Siluko
The region has volcanic plugs, inselbergs and a crater lake. Which of the following geographical regions is being described? (a) Eastern scarplands (b) Western uplands (c) North-central plateau (d) Eastern highlands (e) North-eastern highlands
All the following are important timber producing countries in Africa except (a) Nigeria (b) Ghana (c) Cote D’Ivorie (d) Mauritania (e) Zaire
The major problem facing the rearing of livestock in East Africa is the (a) competition for land with arable cultivators (b) torrential rainfall which destroys livestock feeds (c) poorly developed rail transportation network (d) inferior breed of cattle which produce only meat (e) inadequate veterinary services
All the following are problems facing the cultivation of fruits in the Mediterranean region of Africa except (a) long gestation period (b) frost action (c) inadequate water (d) re-stocking (e) inadequate processing methods
All the following can be made from the by-products of crude oil except (a) plastic (b) synthetic rubber (c) glass (d) detergents (e) insecticides
Which of the following countries in Africa has the greatest hydro-electric potential? (a) Nigeria (b) Zaire (c) Egypt (d) Cameroun (e) Zimbabwe
An extensive area of level or gentle undulating land which is usually a few meters above the sea level is known as (a) Plain (b) Mountain (c) Valley (d) Plateau.
An____ is a violent tremor in the earth crust which send out a series of vibrating waves in all directions (a) earthquakes (b) volcano (c) erosion
The point in the interior of the earth from where the vibration or earthquake waves originates is called the ___ of the earth (b) middle (b) focus (c) limelight
____ waves travel through the crust (a) body waves (b) primary waves (c) secondary waves (d) surface waves
___ causes the coastal rocks to move backwards and forward in the direction of the wave movement. (a) body waves (b) primary waves (c) secondary waves (d) surface waves
____ cause the coastal make to move from side to side i.e. at right angles to the direction of the wave movement (a) body waves (b) primary waves (c) secondary waves (d) surface waves
___ travel through the surface rocks (a) body waves (b) primary waves (c) secondary waves (d) surface waves
____ causes the surface rocks to have a vertical circular movement (a) body waves (b) primary waves (c) Rayleigh waves (d) surface waves
___ Volcanicity is the ejection of solid, liquid or gaseous materials from some deep-seated reservoir of molten magma beneath the earth crust to the earth surface (a) earthquakes (b) volcanicity (c) erosion
Molten magma naturally escape through areas that have experienced mountain building process of compression and tension (a) true (b) false
The intrusive land form of volcanicity include the following except ___(a) dyke (b) sill (c) stone
___ is a discordant volcanic intrusion which is formed when magma solidifies within vertical faults (a) Dyke (b) sill (c) volcanic rock
___ refers to a large stretch of land occupied by limestone which possesses a unique type of topography (a) waves (b) limestone (b) granite

SS3 Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.E 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.A

10.C 11.B 12.C 13.E 14.E 15.B 16.D 17.A

18.E 19.B 20.A 21.A 22.A 23.C 24.C 25.B

26.B 27.C 28.C 29.B 30.C 31.C 32.B 33.D

34.B 35.C 36.B 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.A 41.B

42.C 43.D 44.A 45.E 46.C 47.C 48.D 49.A

50.B 51.A 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.C 56.B 57.A 58.C 59.A 60.B

THEORY 1

– ANSWER ANY 6 QUESTIONS

1a. Define Earthquake

1b.State two causes of earthquake.

1c..Outline three effects of earthquake.

2a. Define Volcano

2b. Mention the three types of volcano.

2c. Explain two of the types mentioned above.

3a. What is Limestone?

3b. Write three differences between a stalactite anda stalagmite.

3c. What is the mode of formation of a pillar?

4a. Define Plains

4b. Explain briefly the difference between chemical weathering and physical weathering.

4c. State three effects of weathering.

5a. Define Mass movement

5b. Describe the four stages of denudation.

5c. State two processes involved in chemical weathering.

6a. Define Climate change

6b. Mention two factors that can reduce global warming.

6c. What is Ozone layer?

7a. Full meaning of ECOWAS

7b. On a map of West Africa, name and locate five ECOWAS countries and their capital.

8a. List four Ocean trade routes.

8b. Mention two causes of unfavourable balance of trade.

SS3 Government Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

GOVERNMENT

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

The first military coup in Nigeria took place on (a) Jan. 15, 1965 (b) Feb. 15,1966 (c) Jan. 15, 1966
The first military coup in Africa happened in (a) Egypt (b) Nigeria (c) Ghana
Who handed over power to a democratically elected president in 1979? (a) Murtala Mohammed (b) Olusegun Obasanjo (c) Gen. Buhari
____ was the military President between 1985- 1993 (a) Gen. Yakubu Gowon (b) Gen. Ibrahim Babangida (c) Gen.Olusegun Obasanjo
____ is associated with military rule (a) Popular consent (b) Accountability (c) Decrees
The following are the failures of military regime except
1. provision of infrastructure (b) increase in crime rate (c) making of harsh laws
One of the following is a feature of military rule
1. periodic elections (b) use of decrees (c) respect for the rule of law
Which military regime introduced S.A.P.? (a) Babangida (b) Abacha (c) Obasanjo
Oil boom was experienced in Nigeria’s economy during ____ regime (a) Aguiyi Ironsi (b) Murtala Mohammed (c) Yakubu Gowon
_____ Education means living in friendship with others and the absence of war or violence in an area. (a) enlightenment (b) physical (c) peace
_____means accepting other people the way they are, although we may not accept or support what they do (b) grace (b) love (c) Tolerance
Which one of the following values does not promote peace? (a) tolerance (b) self-control (c) proudness
____policy refers to the decisions and actions taken by the policy makers of a state to pursue her interest within the global system. (a) Foreign (b) local (c) market
Nigeria foreign policy since independence is grouped into the following different phases (a) True (b) False
The main target of Nigeria’s foreign policy is (a) to fight other nations (b) to influence the policy of others (c) to oppress others
Operation Feed the Nation was introduced during (a) Obasanjo (b) Gowon (c) Babangida
Which among the past military/civilian regime witnessed area boy diplomacy? (a) Buhari (b) Babangida (c) Abacha
Who introduced Structural Adjustment Programme (S.A.P.) in Nigeria? (a) Babangida (b) Obasanjo (c) Buhari
The following factors affect Nigeria foreign policy except (a) demography (b) poverty (c) national interest
The following are responsible for the formulation of Nigeria’s foreign policy except (a) Senator (b) President (c) Minister of foreign affairs
The power to pardon any citizen charged with any criminal offence lies with the (a) legislature (b) judiciary (c) executive
The verdicts of judges which are binding on lower courts are called (a) judicial order (b) precedents (c) oath
The concept of separation of powers was popularized by (a) Baron de Montesquieu (b) Harold Laski (c) Thomas Hobbes.
The concept of Africa as the centre piece of Nigeria’s foreign policy originated in the (a) second republic (b) first republic (c) third republic
Who was the military President of Nigeria between 1983 -1985? (a) Buhari (b) Obasanjo (c) Shagari
The origin of Africa as the center piece of Nigeria’s foreign policy can be traced to —- administration (a) Murtala Mohammed (b) Tafawa Balewa (c) Buhari
The United Nations Organization was formed in (a) 1949 (b) 1956 (c) 1945
The international organization that existed before the formation of the U.N.O was (a) the League of Nations (b) ECOWAS (c) Commonwealth
Nigeria became the ____member of the U.N.O. (a) 89^th (b) 99^th (c) 95^th
The main reason for establishing the U.N.O is to _____ (a) fight international war (b) stop colonialism (c) maintain world peace

SECTION B: THEORY

( Answer 6 questions )

What are the characteristics of the military rule?
Describe the structure of the military rule
Explain (5) weaknesses of the military.
Explain the meaning of group conflict and cooperation.
Differentiate between conflict and cooperation.
Mention 4 solutions to group conflict.
State 4 importance of cooperation.
What is the Meaning of peace education
Write out two Characteristics of peace educations
What is unity? List 3 importance of unity
Identify four advantages of interaction among nations
Highlight five features of Nigeria Foreign Policy
What is the primary function of the President of the country?
Explain the term ‘decolonization’
How has Nigeria contributed to liberation movement?
Highlight 5 principles upon which the U.N.O was founded
What is Non-alignment? Examine the advantages of the policy
Write the full meaning of the following

(a). SAP (b). PRC (c). UNO (d). NFP €. ECOWAS

19. Highlight 5 functions of the Secretariat of the U.N.O.

20. State 4 functions of the International Court of Justice.

SS3 ICT Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

INFORMATION COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY (I.C.T)

1ST TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

ATTEMPT ALL THE QUESTIONS

PART A OBJECTIVES

____is a process that consists of a series of planned activities to develop or alter an Information system (a) SDCC (b) SDDC (c) SDLC
System development Cycle can be thought of as a set of activities that analysts, designers and users carry out to develop and implement an information system. (A) False (b) True
The stages in the SDC include the following except__(a) preliminary (b) investigative (c) paranoid
The intended goal (i.e. what the system will do) of the project (information system) is established in this stage (a) preliminary (b) feasibility study (c) investigative (d) analysis
The goal of the system analysis is to examine the type of the system on the basis of user requirements (what the user needs in the system). (a) preliminary (b) feasibility study (c) investigative (d) analysis
The project goals are restated into specific functions and operation of the intended system (a) preliminary (b) feasibility study (c) investigative (d) analysis
This is the study carried out before development of the system to ascertain if the proposed system is possible, practical and can serve a purpose (a) preliminary (b) feasibility study (c) investigative (d) analysis
This stage involves making changes, corrections, additions to the software while in use (a) preliminary (b) maintenance (c) investigative (d) analysis
A computer___ is a general term used to describe the set of instructions that the computer use to performs a specific task (a) program (b) programmer (c) programming
A computer program is usually written by a__ (a) computer programmer (b) programming language.
Which of the following is NOT characteristics of a good program? (a) readability (b) inconvenience (c) efficiency
Every program requires certain processing time and memory to process the instructions and data (a) efficiency (b) generality (c) maintainability
____ means that if a program is developed for a particular task, then it should also be used for all similar tasks of the same domain. (a) efficiency (b) generality (c) maintainability
____is the ease with which changes can be made to the program to satisfy new requirements (a) efficiency (b) generality (c) maintainability
____is the ease with which a program can be reused in developing other program. (a) efficiency (b) generality (c) reusability
____Entails defining and understanding the problem statement and deciding the boundaries of the problem (a) problem definition (b) problem analysis (c) algorithm
The requirements like variables, functions, or resources to solve the problem are gathered. (a) problem definition (b) problem analysis (c) algorithm
During this phase, a step by step procedure to solve the problem using the specification given in the previous phase is developed. (a) problem definition (b) problem analysis (c) algorithm/ flowcharting
____involves manual checking of the logic of a program for correctness (a) disk checking (b) coding (c) testing and debugging
During this phase, we check whether the code written in previous step is solving the specified problem or not (a) disk checking (b) coding (c) testing and debugging
This phase involves using a programming language to write or implement actual programming instructions for the steps defined in the previous phase. (a) disk checking (b) coding (c) testing and debugging
The brain of the compiler is the parser. (a) True (b) False
The parser also knows the semantics (meaning) of the source language. (a) False (b) Maybe (c) True
The parser’s knowledge of the semantics enables it to call the code generator to produce the object code (a) True (b) False (c) Maybe
____can also be defined as a procedure consisting of a series of steps which specify a sequence of operations that provides the solution to a problem. (a) problem definition (b) problem analysis (c) algorithm/ flowcharting
___is a detailed yet readable description of an algorithm, expressed in a formally-styled natural language rather than in a programming language. (a) problem definition (b) Pseudocode (c) flowchart
A____is a pictorial representation of an algorithm in which the steps are drawn in the form of different shapes of boxes and the logical flow is indicated by interconnecting arrows (a) problem definition (b) Pseudocode (c) flowchart
Which of the following is NOT characteristics of Algorithm? (a) effectiveness (b) finiteness (c) sequence of execution (d) payment
____shows how the instructions are performed from top to bottom in Algorithm (a) effectiveness (b) finiteness (c) sequence of execution
____ensures that the solution prescribed is guaranteed to give a correct answer and that the specified process is faithfully carried out (a) effectiveness (b) finiteness (c) sequence of execution
_____specifies an exact number of steps to be taken and has an end in Algorithm (a) effectiveness (b) finiteness (c) sequence of execution
_____is the global system of interconnected computer networks that use the Internet protocol suite (TCP/IP) to link billions of devices worldwide (a) satellite (b) internet (c) network
____is the largest computer network in the world. (a) satellite (b) internet (c) network
___is a single page of information on a website (a) web page (b) website (c) home page
_____is an introductory page of a website, typically serving as a table of contents for the site (a) web page (b) website (c) home page
____is a collection of related web pages (document that are accessed through the internet (a) web page (b) website (c) home page
A____can be defined as set of rules and regulations that determine how data is transmitted in tele-communications and computer networking (a) web page (b) website (c) protocol
___is a place to use computer to access the internet, create document, chat with friends using voice and video as well as a number of other computer related tasks. (a) cyber café (b) browser (c) upload
____is a message sent from one person to another, or many others through the internet connected computers. (a) cyber café (b) browser (c) E-mail
____is a computer program that retrieves documents or data from a database or from a computer network (especially from the internet). (a) search engine (b) browser (c) E-mail

SS3 ICT Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.C 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.A

10.A 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.C 15.C 16.A 17.B

18.C 19.A 20.C 21.B 22.A 23.C 24.A 25.C

26.B 27.C 28.D 29.C 30.A 31.B 32.B 33.B

34.A 35.C 36.B 37.C 38.A 39.C 40.A

THEORY

– ANSWER 5 QUESTIONS ONLY

1a. Definition of System Development Cycle

1b. Description of the stages in the SDC

2a. Definition of program

2b. Characteristics of a good program

2c. Steps in program development

3aDefinitions of algorithm and flowchart

3b. Functions of algorithm

3c. Characteristics of algorithm

4. Definition of internet

5. Definition of terms – browse, browser, chat room, cyber café, download, home page, e-mail, html, http, internet service provider

6. List 3 Benefits of the internet

7. Highlights 3 Problems of the internet

SS3 Marketing Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

MARKETING

1ST TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A

Marketing activities carried out in more than one country is _____ (a) international marketing (b) national marketing (c) home trade (d) entreport trade
There are firms that opt for international marketing simply by signing a distribution agreement with a ______ (a) foreign trade (b) broker (C) manager (D) factor
______ involves the company manipulating a series of controllable variables (a) domestic marketing (b) global (c) internally marketing (d) foreign marketing
______involves operating across a number of foreign country markets (a) global marketing (b) international marketing (c) marketing (d) domestic marketing
When an international sellers sells a plant, equipment or technology to another country and agrees to take payment in the resulting products, it is called _____ (a) barter (b) buy back (c) counter purchase (d) like-valve exchange
When an important country sets limits on the amount of goods it will accept in certain product categories it is called a _____ (a) quota (b) barrier (c) tariff (d) embargo
______ is the general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means (a) internet commerce (b) web commerce (C) computer commerce (d) electronic marketing
One of the rules that guides international marketing is _____(a) import restriction (b) memorandum of associational (c) company’s annual report (d) articles of association
A company faces several major decisions in international marketing. The first of these decisions is often _____ (a)deciding whether to go international (b) looking at the global marketing environment (c) deciding which markets to enter (d) deciding how to enter markets
An unauthorized person who accesses other people’s information on the internet is a _______ (a) web designer (b) web owner (c) web hacker (d) web provider
An advantage of electronic marketing is that_______(a) network is not always available (b) time restriction is non-existent (c) it is less useful for products that need physical demonstration (d) there is limitation on advertising space
An agreement whereby an organization charges a fee or royalty for the use of its technology in international marketing is_______ (A) licensing (b) franchising (c) joint venture (d) strategic alliance
The buying and selling of goods and services that meet consumer needs on world wide web is____________(a) E-supplying (b) E-marketing (c) E-payment (d) E-requisitioning
Which of the following is required for electronic marketing operations? (a) Internet connection (b) warehousing facilities (c) transportation facilities (d) promotional tools
The exchange of goods and services in international marketing is______ (a) counter track (b) foreign trade (c) entreport trade (d) domestic trade
A company that sells its goods directly in foreign countries is engaging in______ (a) exportation (b) importation (c) franchising (d) licensing
An advantage of road transportation over air transportation is that____(a) fares are not fixed but negotiable (b) it is suitable for carrying bulky goods (c) movements are on special routes (d) it is a faster means of moving goods
A reason why e-marketing is important is that it______(a) provides avenue for immediate inspection of products (b) offers unsolicited messages to customers (c) demonstrates practical use of products (d) offers unlimited access to customers
One of the rules that guides international marketing is_____(a) import restriction (b) memorandum of association (c) company’s annual report (d) articles of association
Which of these factors would facilitate the successful operation of a company in international market? (a) differences in domestic and foreign cultures (b) existence of companies producing similar products (c) provision of government subsidies to foreign investors (d) availability of local currencies
The major mineral product that is traded at the international market by the Nigeria government is ______(a) columbite (b) crude oil (c) diesel (d) kerosene
A marketing survey is required for_______(a) deciding marketing strategies (b) deciding product strategies (c) deciding pricing strategies (d) All of the above
Market information means______ (a) knowledge of industries (b) knowledge of households (c) knowledge of peers (d) knowledge of customers tastes
Market segmentation means_____ (a) segmenting the salesmen (b) segmenting the employees (c) segmentation of the customers as per their needs (d) segmenting the products
Modern styles of marketing are_____ (a) telemarketing (b) web marketing (c) advertisement on the net (d) All of these
Digital marketing is the same as_______ (a) online marketing (b) cross-selling (c) website designing (d) door-to-door marketing
In online marketing, there is______ (a) only warranty (b) no exchange (c) exchange is the core of marketing (d) guarantee
The traditional marketing style involves _____ (a) telemarketing (b) digital marketing (c) indirect marketing (d) direct marketing
Market research is needed for______ (a) checking the market area (b) checking the right product to be sold (c) making proper marketing decisions (d) All of the above
Marketing plan helps in______ (a) better lead generation (b) better systems (c) better result (d) improved balance sheet
“With you all the way” is the slogan of _______ (a) Vodafone (b) SBI (c) IDCI (d) Raymonds
Which company used the slogan “The complete Man”? (a) DCM (b) GRASM (c) RAYMONDS (d) VIMA L
Which brand uses the slogan “ Made for each other” for its cigarettes.? (a) Cavenders (b) Four square (c) Red & white (d) Wills
Difference between direct and indirect marketing is_____ (a) direct markeing is to employees of the concerned company, while indirect is to outsiders (b) direct marketing is to outsider, while indirect is to employees of the concerned company (c) direct marketing is to bank’s owner, insider is to outsiders (d) direct marketing is to other bank’s employees, indirect outsides
Marketing is successful when_____ (a) demand exceeds supply (b) salesman are effectively trained (c) supply exceed demand (d) a company sell products at lower price
The tools used by marketers to pursue their objective in the market is marketing _____ (a) audit (b) mix (c) research (d) intelligence
Which of the following e-marketing abuses involves an unauthorized use of somebody’s identity to extract information? (a) hacking (b) spam (c) phishing (d) cyber fraud
A marketing plan does not have to _____ (a) simple (b) clear (c) complex (d) lengthy (e) Both C & D
Which intermediary in the distribution process follows the wholesaler? (a) consumer (b) sales representative (c) retailer (d) agent
The main objective of transportation is_____ (a) economical transport of goods (b) economical transport of passengers (c) to generate revenue (d) safe economical and efficient transport of goods and passengers

THEORY

1a. Define International marketing

1b. List five (5) reasons for international trading between companies

1c. Explain three (3) importance of international marketing

2a. Define International trade

2b. Explain 3 features of international marketing

Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1. A 21. B

2. A 22. D

3. A 23. D

4. B 24. C

5. B 25. D

6. A 26. A

7. D 27. A

8. A 28. D

9. B 29. D

10. C 30. C

11. B 31. B

12. A 32. C

13. B 33. D

14. A 34. A

15. B 35. C

16. A 36. C

17. A 37. A

18. D 38. E

19. A 39. C

20. C 40. D

SS3 Physics Examination Question For First Term

SENIOR THREE (3) S.S. 3

PHYSICS

1ST TERM EXAMINATION

SECTION A

TIME ALLOWED: 1 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS: Answer all questions in these sections correctly, and note that all questions carry equal marks

SECTION A OBEJECTIVE

The S.I unit of movement of force is _________ (a) KG M (b) Nm (c) Jm (d) Nm^{– 1}
Which of the following types of motion does a body undergo when moving in an haphazard manner? (a) Random (b) Translational (c) Rational (d) Vibrational
A car starts from rest and covers a distance of 40m in 10 sec. calculate the magnitude of its acceleration (a) 0.25cms^{– 2} (b) 0.80ms^{– 2} (c) 3.20m^{– 2} (d) 4.00ms^{– 2}
Which of the following instruments may be used to measure relative humidity (a) Barometer (b) Manometer (c)Hygrometer (d) Hydrometer
Three non – parallel forces which can be represented both in magnitude and direction by three sides of a triangle taken in order, can: (a) Make a body oscillate (b) Make a body to rotate (c) Keep a body in equilibrium (d) Move a body in straight line
Which of the following combinations will increase the stability of an object? (a) Wide base and low C.G (b) Narrow base and low C.G (d) Narrow base and high C.G (d) Wide base and high C.G
When a mass attached to a spiral spring is set into vertical oscillations, its accelerations will have a: (a) Varying magnitude but a constant direction (b) Constant magnitude and a constant direction (c) Constant magnitude but a varying direction (d) Varying magnitude and a varying direction
The motion of a body is simple harmonic if the _____________________________ (a) Acceleration is always directed towards a fixed point (b) Path of motion is a straight line (c) Acceleration is directed towards a fixed point and proportional to its distance from the point
Which of the following phenomena is the practical evidence for the existence of the continual motion of the molecules? (a) Translatory motion (b) Rotational motion (c) Brownian motion (d) Oscillatory motion
The friction which exists between two layers of liquid in relative motion is called ______ (a) Capillarity (b) Surface tension (c) Viscosity (d) Cohension
A body starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 5ms -2 until it attains a velocity of 25ms^{– 1}. Calculate the time taken to attain this velocity (a) 2.5s (b) 5s (c) 10s (d)1.25s
A man will exert the greatest pressure on a bench when he ______ (a) Lies flat on his back (b) Lies flat on his belly (c) Stands on both feet (d) Stands on the toes of one foot
Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity? (a) Momentum (b) Force (c) Velocity (d) Temperature
A simple pendulum makes 50 oscillat ions in one minute. What is its period of oscillation? (a) 0.02s (b) 0.83s (c) 1.20s (d) 50.00s
Which of the following has the same unit as the moment of a force? (a) Power (b) Work (c)Momentum (d) Impulse
What change in velocity would be produced on a body of mass 4kg if a constant force of 16N acts on it for 2s? (a) 2.0ms^{– 1} (b) 8.0ms^{– 1} (c) 32.0m^{– 1} (d) 128.0
A particle starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration of 0.5ms – 2. Calculate the time taken by the particle to cover a distance of 25 (a) 2.5s (b) 7.1s (c) 10.0s (d) 50.0s
How far will a body move in 4s if uniformly accelerated from rest at the rate of 2ms^{– 2}? (a)32m (b)24m (c) 16m (d) 12m
In which of the following simple machines is the effort applied between the load and the fulcrum? (a) Scissors (b) Pliers (c) Wheel barrow (d) Sugar tongs
A ball is dropped from a height of 45m above the ground. Calculate the velocity of the ball just before it strikes the ground (Neglect air resistance and take g = 10ms ^{– 2} (a) 21.2m^{– 2} (b) 30ms^{– 1} (c) 300ms^{– 1} (d) 450ms^{– 1}
A stationary object of mass 4kg is set in motion by a net force of 50N, if the object attains a speed of 5ms^{– 1} in time, calculate the value of t? (a) 1.30s (b)0.80s (c) 0.63s (d) 0.40s
A body of mass 20kg is set in motion by two forces 3N and 4N acting at right angles to each other. Determine the magnitude of its acceleration (a) 4.00ms^{– 2}(b) 0.35ms^{– 2} (c) 0.25ms^{– 2} (d) 0.05ms ^{– 2}
The time rate of change of displacement is known as (a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Impulse (d) Acceleration
A body accelerates from rest at 0.2ms ^{– 2} for 20s. calculate the distance covered by the body (a) 4m (b) 20m (c)40m (d) 80m
The force between molecules of the same substance is termed (a) elastic force (b) Repulsive force (c) cohesive force (d) Adhesive force
Which of the following has the same unit as energy? (a) Power (b) Work (c) Force (d) Momentum
Which of the following sources of energy is renewable? (a) Sun (b)Petroleum (c) Coal (c) Water
The speed of an object in rectilinear motion can be determined from the: (a) Area under a velocity – time (b) Area under a distance time – graph (c) Slope of a distance – time graph (d) Slope of velocity time graph
The pair of physical quantities consisting of vectors are: (a) Displacement and torque (b) Momentum and power (c) Acceleration and speed (d) Velocity and distance
What type of motion does the skin of a talking drum perform when struck with a drum stick? (a) Random (b) Rotational (c)Translational (d) Vibratory

Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

1.B 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C

10.C 11.B 12.D 13.D 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.C

18.C 19.D 20.B 21.D 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.C

26.B 27.A 28.C 29.A 30.D

SECTION B THEORY

1a. State Newton’s law of universal gravitation

1b. Calculate the force of attraction between two small objects of mass 10kg and 50kg respectively which are 10cm apart. ( take G= 6.67 x 10^-11 Nm²kg^-2)

2a. What is escape velocity?

2b. AA rocket of mass 150kg is fired from the earth’s surface so that it just escapes from the gravitational influence of the earth. Calculate the velocity with which it escapes. ( take G= 6.67 x 10^-11 Nm²kg^-2; r=6.4 X 10⁶M and mass of the earth = 6.0 x 10²⁴kg.

3a. Define the following

Capacitor
Capacitance
Diagram

Agricultural Science SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

SECTION A

Agricultural Science Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

Biology SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

Biology Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Catering Craft SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVES

Catering Craft Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Chemistry SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

Chemistry Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

Civic Education SS3 Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

Civic Education Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

SS3 Commerce Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

Commerce Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

SS3 CRS Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A

SECTION B THEORY PARTS

CRS Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS3 Data Processing Examination Questions For First Term

OBJECTIVES

Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS3 Data Processing Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A

Data Processing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS3 Economics Examination Question For First Term

Economics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

SS3 Yoruba Examination Question For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A:

THEORY ( Dahun Ibeere meta pere)

SS3 English Studies Examination Question For First Term

OBJECTIVE PARTS: SECTION A: SPEECH WORK

QUESTION:

SS3 Financial Accounting Examination Question For First Term

SS3 Financial Account Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

SS3 Food and Nutrition Examination Question For First Term

SS3 Food and Nutrition Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS3 Further Mathematics Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A: OBJECTIVES

SS3 Further Mathematics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B: THEORY

SS3 Geography Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A

SS3 Geography Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY 1

SS3 Government Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A – OBJECTIVE

SECTION B: THEORY

SS3 ICT Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A

SS3 ICT Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

THEORY

SS3 Marketing Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A

THEORY

Marketing Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SS3 Physics Examination Question For First Term

SECTION A OBEJECTIVE

Physics Exam Questions Objectives (OBJ) Answers

SECTION B THEORY

2 Comments

Leave a Reply Cancel reply